R
Russ1
Guest
My wife filed for divorce in March 1998 in Utah. I moved out of the house thereafter and 5 months later moved out of Utah. After a year the case defaulted due to unactivity by my ex-wife. I filed in Texas for divorce in 3-99 due to the case being defaulted, and divorced in 9-99. in 10-00 a divorce decree was ordered in Utah which I did attend and she was awarded alimony after it was denied in Texas. My questions are
1)Maried for 19 years, lived in Ohio for 8, California for 9 and Utah 1.5 years. Who had jurisdiction in this case and can one state overrule another state decision. Having the first case filed by her defaulted doesn't that void jurisdiction in Utah.
2)If Texas ruled it had Jurdisdiction in the case, should their laws be prevail.
3)Child Support is not a issue, have always paid it and will continue.
4)Should'nt this case in Texas been appealed if they didn't like the ruling? My ex had legal representation in Texas also.
1)Maried for 19 years, lived in Ohio for 8, California for 9 and Utah 1.5 years. Who had jurisdiction in this case and can one state overrule another state decision. Having the first case filed by her defaulted doesn't that void jurisdiction in Utah.
2)If Texas ruled it had Jurdisdiction in the case, should their laws be prevail.
3)Child Support is not a issue, have always paid it and will continue.
4)Should'nt this case in Texas been appealed if they didn't like the ruling? My ex had legal representation in Texas also.