What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? PA
My question is concerning the IRS tax deduction and alimony.
My ex-wife and I divorced in 2001. In 1999 when we split I agreed to pay her 262.oo/ bi-weekly pay, in order that the money go to paying my half of our debts. I agreed to pay this for 10 years.
In our divorce papers, she had it written that this payment should be for 10 years and it is to pay off my half of joint debt accumulated before our divorce.
After now paying over 9 years I come to realize that I have paid her over 61,000 dollars. Our total debt was less than 20 thousand, including a car we had bought her not long before we split up, which she hasn't had now for maybe 6 years.
In the paper work it said that I cannot take a tax deduction for this payment because this is to be for debt payoff.
However, looking at the numbers, that means that there should have been more than 122,000 dollars applied to debt. Logic would state that if that was taking place, then the debt obligations would have been long met.
That means then the money she has been receiving has become income to her. In addition, though it isn't written, wouldn't this then become alimony? Would I then be entitled to a tax write-off for that? Would she then have to claim that as income tax?
Thank you for your help.
Dan
My question is concerning the IRS tax deduction and alimony.
My ex-wife and I divorced in 2001. In 1999 when we split I agreed to pay her 262.oo/ bi-weekly pay, in order that the money go to paying my half of our debts. I agreed to pay this for 10 years.
In our divorce papers, she had it written that this payment should be for 10 years and it is to pay off my half of joint debt accumulated before our divorce.
After now paying over 9 years I come to realize that I have paid her over 61,000 dollars. Our total debt was less than 20 thousand, including a car we had bought her not long before we split up, which she hasn't had now for maybe 6 years.
In the paper work it said that I cannot take a tax deduction for this payment because this is to be for debt payoff.
However, looking at the numbers, that means that there should have been more than 122,000 dollars applied to debt. Logic would state that if that was taking place, then the debt obligations would have been long met.
That means then the money she has been receiving has become income to her. In addition, though it isn't written, wouldn't this then become alimony? Would I then be entitled to a tax write-off for that? Would she then have to claim that as income tax?
Thank you for your help.
Dan