A close relative of mine was arrested in the state of Wisconsin in August 2007 for a crime that he was accused of in California in July of 2006. He was questioned before his arrest by a Milwaukee, WI police detective and was not given his miranda rights. He was later arrested and taken back to California. He is facing a jury trial in January and the prosecution is flying the Milwaukee detective out to CA to testify against him. I am wondering if she is able to testify against him when he was not give the right to remain silent or advised that what he says will be used against him in a court of law? This seems to violate the basic principals of the Miranda rights.
Miranda's warning requirements apply only to "custodial interrogation."
Miranda's "in custody" requirement is met if questioning was conducted in custodial settings that have inherently coercive pressures that tend to undermine the individual's will to resist and to compel him to speak.
The test used in determining whether a defendant was in custody is an objective one that (a) asks whether a reasonable person would have understood herself to be subjected to restraints comparable to those associated with a formal arrest, and (b) focuses upon the presence or absence of affirmative indications that the defendant was not free to leave. An accused is in custody when, even in the absence of an actual arrest, law enforcement officials act or speak in a manner that conveys the message that they would not permit the accused to leave.
So, the answer depends on the specific facts surrounding your relative's questioning.