TEXAS.
My wife was recently involved in a situation where she changed lanes in order to avoid reaer-ending someone ahead of her who braked suddenly. As she was changing lanes, she realized there was someone in the other lane next to her, so she swerved back into her original lane, as the individual ahead of her had now turned. As it turns out though, the driver in the second lane swerved to avoid a collision with my wife, and hit the curb, damaging his wheel and tire, etc. No injuries. My wife stopped to see if the guy was alright, and shortly thereafter a cop arrived and stated he could not assign fault, and that technically this was not an accident for which he could write a report, so none was made.
Later, the driver of the damaged vehicle filed with his insurance company (who happens to be our insurance co. as well), who then questioned my wife and subsequently determined she was 100% responsible for the incident , despite the fact that there was no police report, and no confession of fault on her part. Personal judgements aside, my question is can the insurance company actually make a determination like this (placing 100% of the fault) when there was no police report, etc.? Why wouldn't the driver of the damaged vehicle be partially at fault (i.e., could he not have braked instead of swerving up onto the curb)?
Thanks!
My wife was recently involved in a situation where she changed lanes in order to avoid reaer-ending someone ahead of her who braked suddenly. As she was changing lanes, she realized there was someone in the other lane next to her, so she swerved back into her original lane, as the individual ahead of her had now turned. As it turns out though, the driver in the second lane swerved to avoid a collision with my wife, and hit the curb, damaging his wheel and tire, etc. No injuries. My wife stopped to see if the guy was alright, and shortly thereafter a cop arrived and stated he could not assign fault, and that technically this was not an accident for which he could write a report, so none was made.
Later, the driver of the damaged vehicle filed with his insurance company (who happens to be our insurance co. as well), who then questioned my wife and subsequently determined she was 100% responsible for the incident , despite the fact that there was no police report, and no confession of fault on her part. Personal judgements aside, my question is can the insurance company actually make a determination like this (placing 100% of the fault) when there was no police report, etc.? Why wouldn't the driver of the damaged vehicle be partially at fault (i.e., could he not have braked instead of swerving up onto the curb)?
Thanks!