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do I understand this correctly

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rightarm

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Arizona.
I was invovled in an auto accident, declared by the police, not at fault. I was rear ended. It is understood that there is some " lose of use" money I can recieve from op insurance. Which is different than rental reimbustment. So my question is, if the law states something, does an insurance company have to follow? Specifically, in terms of the number of days I am without a car, I receive a certain dollar amount each day. My car is unable to be driven, and will be declared 100% totalled. I have state minimum insurance.
 


ecmst12

Senior Member
Please keep all your questions related to the same accident/situation in one thread.

No, you cannot get compensated for "loss of use" unless you actually rent a car. The at fault party may set you up with a rental that they will be billed for directly, or they may say that you have to rent the car yourself and send them the bill.
 

justaninsured

Junior Member
Please keep all your questions related to the same accident/situation in one thread.

No, you cannot get compensated for "loss of use" unless you actually rent a car. The at fault party may set you up with a rental that they will be billed for directly, or they may say that you have to rent the car yourself and send them the bill.
Not necessarily. After being involved in an accident (not at fault) with a State Farm insured, I was offered a loss of use payment based on the days my cars was in the shop with no mention of a rental. It doesn't hurt to ask, OP.
 

ecmst12

Senior Member
You may have been offered, but legally they are not REQUIRED to compensate you for loss of use unless you actually incurred an expense because of it.
 

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