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  #1  
Old 10-02-2003, 02:25 PM
Zero_System
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Loss Of Use


Hi my name is Stanley and i live in Boulder Colorado. I was in a motorcycle accident where I had stopped for a car in front of me then a car behind me had hit me. He pinned my motorcycle between the two cars. My motorcycle was total. But my qestion is that the insurance company is not paying for loss of use becasue it is a motorcycle. So can they do this ?
  #2  
Old 10-02-2003, 02:54 PM
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Join Date: Jan 2000
Location: Los Angeles, California
Posts: 38,191
My response:

No. What the hell kind of "pretzel logic" are they using?

A motorcycle is a vehicle - - and it happens to be the mode of travel you have chosen. All because it's a motorcycle doesn't mean that, under the law, it has any less "standing" than a car!

Call motorcycle shops to find out what a bike, closest to your own, would rent for, and then submit that estimate to the insurance company.

That has got to be the lamest excuse out of an insurance company I've heard about in a long time!

IAAL
  #3  
Old 10-02-2003, 03:03 PM
Zero_System
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Thank You


Your response was vary helpful because I thought that was weird too so I will try to find a motorcycle but they are only harleys and I had a honda but I guss it will have to do. Also what can I do about personal injury ?

Last edited by Zero_System; 10-02-2003 at 03:05 PM.
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