rear end

[MDmotorist]

What is the name of your state?****land

I was borrowing a friends car and rear-ended a pickup. The ball hitch of the pickup pushed in the bumper and grill to my friend's car. The driver of the pickup said since he did not sustain any damage, that he preferred not to go through insurance. I didn't think the damage was too bad on the car, so I agreed (no information exchanged).

The estimate ended up coming to $1,600 with the possibility that they might discover more damage once they start working on it. Kelley Blue Book puts the value between $1,400 and $1,800. I gave my friend a check for $2,000 in good faith while I checked out insurance options which he cashed immediately. Since I have collision coverage for the vehicle I own, my insurance (Geico) will cover the damages in excess of my friend's coverage. My friend did not have collision coverage for his vehicle. My deductible is $250.

If I file, I only pay the deductible, but the car will most likely be declared "totaled". A concern that my friend's wife raised was since the driver of the pickup and I did not exchange information, I would be considered a "hit-and-run" driver. Is this true? How would this affect my insurance classification? Geico's policy on risk looks at the number of "at-fault" accidents in the past three years. This would be the only one if I file. If the "hit-and-run" classification is true, would I then be in trouble with the law? Is anyone obligated to report this incident to the police? If I am accepting 100% liablility, wouldn't this be like hitting a deer or a post?

By the way, my friend is keeping the car even though I paid him $2,000.

 

[MDmotorist]

I typed ****land (MD - ****land) for the state question. I don't know why the asterisks are replacing the letters.

 

[MDmotorist]

rear-end

Because the system is asterisking part of my state name, I will spell it phonetically - Ma-ree-land . It is geographically located east of DC, south of Pennsylvania and southwest of Delaware.

 

[InsuranceLadyAZ]

Why did you give your friend $2,000 before even finding out the cost of repairs?

 

[MDmotorist]

Because he is my friend and for my own piece of mind.

I received the estimate and book values before I wrote the check. The car has more value to him than blue book since he plans on keeping it for several more years. The damage might exceed the estimate. I paid over the top book value for his inconvenience for now having to deal with a damaged car.

He has said that he will return the $2,000 if I decide to file. Although I would rather just pay the deductible, if I end up not filing, I would feel better about making sure he is well taken care of.

 

[InsuranceLadyAZ]

Did you have him sign a release when you gave him the check?

 

[MDmotorist]

I did not get him to sign a waiver. If I do not file with insurance, I am completely fine having paid him $2,000. I am not concerned with trying to get that back from him. That will be handled if and when I file.

My concern is what I put in my original posting:

"A concern that my friend's wife raised was since the driver of the pickup and I did not exchange information, I would be considered a "hit-and-run" driver. Is this true? How would this affect my insurance classification? Geico's policy on risk looks at the number of "at-fault" accidents in the past three years. This would be the only one if I file. If the "hit-and-run" classification is true, would I then be in trouble with the law? Is anyone obligated to report this incident to the police? If I am accepting 100% liablility, wouldn't this be like hitting a deer or a post?"