I own an LLC and my business sold a large piece of equipment to another business for $20K. A sales contract was drawn up that stated the equipment was to be moved by a specified date. A deposit of half the sale price was accepted and the balance stated to be due at the time the equipment was picked up. The buyer failed to remove the equipment by this deadline. 5 months passed and the buyer still was unable to pickup the equipment after many attempts to get them to do so. At this point another buyer was found and the equipment was sold. I received a phone call from local law enforcement and was told that I will be charged with criminal theft of the original deposit if I dont pay it back. The sales contract did not specify if the deposit was refundable or not.
Adding to this, the sole reason for selling this equipment was to terminate the lease of the building the business was within and trim down to a home-based operation. The business took on 5 additional months of expenses for leasing the property until another buyer was found and the equipment was picked up. The business was on a month to month lease so we were not obligated to stay. These expenses exceed the original deposit by about 25% and created untold losses through indirect consequences.
I am surprised to hear that this can in any way be considered criminal. Nothing more has come of it as of two weeks since speaking with the local PD's detective. The original buyer is uncooperative in trying to find an amicable solution and is demanding the deposit back in full.
Just wanting to know if I really am potentially in jeopardy for criminal charges or if this is purely a civil case?
Adding to this, the sole reason for selling this equipment was to terminate the lease of the building the business was within and trim down to a home-based operation. The business took on 5 additional months of expenses for leasing the property until another buyer was found and the equipment was picked up. The business was on a month to month lease so we were not obligated to stay. These expenses exceed the original deposit by about 25% and created untold losses through indirect consequences.
I am surprised to hear that this can in any way be considered criminal. Nothing more has come of it as of two weeks since speaking with the local PD's detective. The original buyer is uncooperative in trying to find an amicable solution and is demanding the deposit back in full.
Just wanting to know if I really am potentially in jeopardy for criminal charges or if this is purely a civil case?