Illinois
I posted this in the bankruptcy forum, but figured it may fit here, as well, as I'm trying to figure out whether or not I should sign it.
My lawyer recently revised my families original retainer agreement, and added this at the end of it:
"Forbankruptcy cases only: any additional fees beyondthose described above as the LawFirm's initial fee, will be invoiced, applied for by motion, and/or properly documented in an amended AttorneyCompensation Statement according to law and local rules of the BankruptcyCourt."
He said that the addition is due to some new local rule(s).
1.) What purpose does adding the above serve? Is this an attempt to potentially extract more money from us? Or should I just sign the revised agreement, as everything else on said agreement is the same.
2.) Out of curiosity, am I bound to sign it? Meaning, if I don't, do they have a right not to follow through with my families bankruptcy case?
3.) Should I ask him which new rule/law requires this new revision? Or, again, is that not necessary?
Just trying to be cautious here, so any opinions/advice/comments would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
I posted this in the bankruptcy forum, but figured it may fit here, as well, as I'm trying to figure out whether or not I should sign it.
My lawyer recently revised my families original retainer agreement, and added this at the end of it:
"Forbankruptcy cases only: any additional fees beyondthose described above as the LawFirm's initial fee, will be invoiced, applied for by motion, and/or properly documented in an amended AttorneyCompensation Statement according to law and local rules of the BankruptcyCourt."
He said that the addition is due to some new local rule(s).
1.) What purpose does adding the above serve? Is this an attempt to potentially extract more money from us? Or should I just sign the revised agreement, as everything else on said agreement is the same.
2.) Out of curiosity, am I bound to sign it? Meaning, if I don't, do they have a right not to follow through with my families bankruptcy case?
3.) Should I ask him which new rule/law requires this new revision? Or, again, is that not necessary?
Just trying to be cautious here, so any opinions/advice/comments would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.