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sandyneedshelp

Junior Member
Trying to sort thru a case study assignment and am getting lost.

A corporation has 100% of its shares owned by the venture arm of a leading bank.

The purchase was 80% leveraged with a co-operating bank - competitor.

45 days after the closing it is announced that both banks will be merging.

#1 Is it proper for one arm of the bank to be the 100% shareholder, and another arm be the lone secured creditor? Normal trade payables for the company run nearly equal to owners equity.

#2 Is there a requirement for the merged bank to refloat the notes with another arms length bank?

#3 If divesiture is required, under which Federal Law are the requiremnts to be found?

Thanx for the help,

sandy :)
 



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