California Land/Lot Sale Title Holder

[Lonewolfemm]

California
Hello, here is a question regarding purchasing a lot with another individual.
Basically bought a property with a lady i was seeing and both of us put on the paperwork that we were -single individuals-. Years later and the woman has passed away. We never married and had not seen each other for a few years.
The lot went up for sale thru the county due to back taxes, and the resulting funds were allowed to be collected due to the fact that the lot sold for more than what was owed on the back taxes so I was contacted and informed that I had a "right" to the excess funds.
I filled out the appropriate forms and had to wait a year per regulations.
the county, where the property resided in, had contacted the county where the woman had resided in and investigated whether she had a "will"/married..etc...
apparently the woman was married during the time that we purchased the property and never was divorced/seperated.etc.... althought she had put on the paperwork "a single woman".
the county gave half of the proceeds to the surviving spouse--who i dont even know who it is...and was unaware that she was married.
my question is.....due to the fact that she knowingly put false information..ie..a single woman, when obviously she wasnt, makes the title incorrect on her part? and property should be "deeded" to the other party (myself)
If I recall correctly, the title read single man AND single woman (currently moving and all paperwork is in storage)
thanks for any info or if there is anything that would pertain to this.

[nextwife]

Originally Posted by Lonewolfemm

California
Hello, here is a question regarding purchasing a lot with another individual.
Basically bought a property with a lady i was seeing and both of us put on the paperwork that we were -single individuals-. Years later and the woman has passed away. We never married and had not seen each other for a few years.
The lot went up for sale thru the county due to back taxes, and the resulting funds were allowed to be collected due to the fact that the lot sold for more than what was owed on the back taxes so I was contacted and informed that I had a "right" to the excess funds.
I filled out the appropriate forms and had to wait a year per regulations.
the county, where the property resided in, had contacted the county where the woman had resided in and investigated whether she had a "will"/married..etc...
apparently the woman was married during the time that we purchased the property and never was divorced/seperated.etc.... althought she had put on the paperwork "a single woman".
the county gave half of the proceeds to the surviving spouse--who i dont even know who it is...and was unaware that she was married.
my question is.....due to the fact that she knowingly put false information..ie..a single woman, when obviously she wasnt, makes the title incorrect on her part? and property should be "deeded" to the other party (myself)
If I recall correctly, the title read single man AND single woman (currently moving and all paperwork is in storage)
thanks for any info or if there is anything that would pertain to this.

The spouse was only entitled to his spousal share of HER interest's proceeds. She only owned HALF the property I presume? You were entitled to the other half. She only owned half, based upon what you state, therefore, regardless of her marital status, her spouse cannot be entitled to MORE than the share she had.

[LindaP777]

Originally Posted by nextwife

She only owned half, based upon what you state, therefore, regardless of her marital status, her spouse cannot be entitled to MORE than the share she had.

Nor are you entitled to MORE than the share than you had.

[Lonewolfemm]

thanks
I could understand that if it was a known fact that she was married when she signed the paperwork.
However she did not state or declare she was married and also that she knowingly puts that she is "a single individual" -- even though she was married at the time--- on the paperwork, which from what I understand by signing that the information provided is a stating known actual facts.
the reason I bring this part to light is it would appear then that anyone could put what they like on the documents and doesnt necesarily require it to be accurate?