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  #1  
Old 10-24-2001, 09:42 AM
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Dispute of sale. Strange but true


Mother obtained home from previous owner in exchange for debt. She later sold home for $1.00 to her son in 1989. Mother died in 2000. Her son is selling the house. Previous owner has now come forward with a scribbled piece of signed by mother(notary signature but no seal) stating that mother agrees to pay previous owner any profits over $30,000.00. Does the sons legal and documented purchase of the home in 1989 overide the mothers agreement with the previous owner since it is a purchase is less than 30,000.00? Would statute of limitations come into play? Is such a scribbled document good in court? This dispute is in Texas.
  #2  
Old 10-24-2001, 03:10 PM
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Consult an attorney in Texas as he/she would need to see the document.
  #3  
Old 10-24-2001, 04:41 PM
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I agree with HG.

There could be some provisions (covenants) that would stay with the property even after property transfer, and some contingencies that would no longer apply on down-line sales. An attorney needs to read the ENTIRE documents and determine their validity on any existing conditions.
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There are at least 17 lawsuits (!!) pending in various courts, including the US Supreme Court, asking if Obama is a natural born citizen (as req'd by Art II, Sec 1 of the US Constitution).

Why has he spent over $1.35M in legal fees to block disclosure... rather than spend $12 for a VALID birth cert to settle the matter? The 'certificate' he has presented doesn't qualify to get a drivers license, wouldn't allow a child to qualify for Little League, or for a real citizen to get a US passport!
  #4  
Old 10-24-2001, 11:07 PM
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Home Guru and Halket, Thanks for your replies. The son will be consulting an attorney. I did find out that the agreement between the previous owner and the mother was made prior to 1974. The home had been sold and reposessed by the mother about 15 years ago and the previous owner did nothing at that time. Also, only the signature of his ex wife is on the piece of paper along with the mothers signature. The agreement is hand written and the notary signature has no stamp, number or date. This is not a legal document. It just simply states that if the mother sells the property anything above 30,00.00 will go to the previous owner. Does this sound nuts?
  #5  
Old 10-24-2001, 11:14 PM
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Even a squirrel thinks that's nuts.
  #6  
Old 10-25-2001, 12:05 AM
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Haha ha! Very funny.
  #7  
Old 11-01-2001, 03:40 PM
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To all, Just spoke to attorney about this case and he called it attempted extortion. Says there are no grounds to apply the agreement due to statute of limitations and the fact that the son had purchased the property so many years ago. He told the son just to tell them he did not recognize the material as a document and that he would prosecute if they contacted him about the matter again.
  #8  
Old 11-01-2001, 04:24 PM
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Sounds like some good advice.

Glad this (probably) worked out.
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There are at least 17 lawsuits (!!) pending in various courts, including the US Supreme Court, asking if Obama is a natural born citizen (as req'd by Art II, Sec 1 of the US Constitution).

Why has he spent over $1.35M in legal fees to block disclosure... rather than spend $12 for a VALID birth cert to settle the matter? The 'certificate' he has presented doesn't qualify to get a drivers license, wouldn't allow a child to qualify for Little League, or for a real citizen to get a US passport!
  #9  
Old 11-01-2001, 06:41 PM
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This part has been taken care of. See my other post.
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