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Title Company Negligence: Who is Responsible?

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ecs

Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? NJ & FL

We sold a property in NJ and closing was over 2 months ago. We live in Florida. All paperwork was done through email & fax, and we did not attend the closing, which was held in the buyer’s attorney’s office in NJ. Although we filled out and returned the non-resident seller’s tax declaration form that the Title Company sent to us before closing, the HUD-1 form that everyone signed off on did not include a deduction from our proceeds for the 2% “exit tax” and no such deduction was made at closing from the funds we received. The amount in question is $6700.00.

One clause in the purchase agreement / contract of sale, authored by the buyer’s attorney - and which everyone signed off on - states:

“If there is an error or omission in the adjustments or sums set forth within the HUD-1, the mistake shall be corrected and paid by the party owing same within ten (10) days following receipt of notice of the error or omission. This provision shall survive closing for 30 days then be of no force or effect.” All parties signed off on this contract.

Note: “ . . . RECEIPT of notice . . . “

We received no notice of our responsibility for any error or omission from either the Title Company, the buyers, or the buyer’s attorney within the 30-day post-closing period. After closing, the title company’s email address was deleted, no voicemails were received, and no snail mail was received.

Now, over 60 days beyond closing, the Title Company is attempting to contact us through the real estate agent, alternate emails and third parties regarding payment of these monies – which were not collected by them at closing due to their own negligence – and they are now claiming that they attempted to contact us within the 30-day window (we don’t know if they MADE any attempts – we only know that we did not RECEIVE any contact or notice – from anyone). We have not responded to their current attempts at contact. They are claiming that the buyer’s deed cannot be recorded by the county because this “tax” was not paid by us. We have also read that this “tax” is to be collected at the time of closing – i.e., deducted from the seller’s proceeds, which it was not – due to their negligence.

Interestingly, although the closing was held in the buyer’s attorney’s office, this attorney apparently did not notice or address this omission at that time, and to date neither he nor the buyers have contacted us regarding this.

It has now been over 60 days beyond the closing date. Our questions on how to proceed:

What are our rights regarding this situation that we did not create, but that exists due to the negligence of the Title Company?

With regard to the above clause in the purchase contract, are we, the sellers, now released from any responsibility should we now receive notification of this error / omission? – since such notification was never received by us within the 30 days post-closing window?

Should the Title Company be held responsible for their negligence in not including this deduction on the HUD-1 - that everyone signed off on? – and if so, should they pay the amount in question themselves? – or file a claim through their errors / omissions insurance? – or through the buyer’s title insurance?

Should the buyers and/or their attorney bear any responsibility for not raising this issue during the time period for doing so?

Would the title company / buyers / buyer’s attorney be able to file a lawsuit against us since we are not in their jurisdiction – and – since THEY were all negligent?

We did not have an attorney during the sale because we did not need one - their was no lack of understanding the process.

PS: Also, it should be noted that the Title Company was extremely unprofessional and messed up on several other smaller details, such as neglecting to order special readings for municipal utilities, and neglecting to include credits for property taxes on the HUD-1, neglecting to send us our funds until almost 2 weeks after closing, and neglecting to release the real estate agent’s commission to him until 2 weeks after closing.

Thanks for any insight.
 


adjusterjack

Senior Member
Would the title company / buyers / buyer’s attorney be able to file a lawsuit against us since we are not in their jurisdiction – and – since THEY were all negligent?
Obviously, the answer to that question is "yes" because anybody can sue anybody for anything anywhere. Whether they can win or not is another story. Unfortunately, any time you get sued you can potentially spend many thousands on a lawyer to defend you.

One clause in the purchase agreement / contract of sale, authored by the buyer’s attorney - and which everyone signed off on - states:

“If there is an error or omission in the adjustments or sums set forth within the HUD-1, the mistake shall be corrected and paid by the party owing same within ten (10) days following receipt of notice of the error or omission. This provision shall survive closing for 30 days then be of no force or effect.” All parties signed off on this contract.

Note: “ . . . RECEIPT of notice . . . “
That's your contract with the buyer.

You also have a contract with the title company. Remember all those escrow instructions addressed to the title company that you signed? Better study those and see if there's a "gotcha" in there.

At any rate, that provision you quoted certainly appears to protect you and if the buyer sued you the buyer would have to prove that you received notice within the 30 days.

Now, over 60 days beyond closing, the Title Company is attempting to contact us through the real estate agent, alternate emails and third parties regarding payment of these monies – which were not collected by them at closing due to their own negligence – and they are now claiming that they attempted to contact us within the 30-day window (we don’t know if they MADE any attempts – we only know that we did not RECEIVE any contact or notice – from anyone).
Again, to prevail in a lawsuit, the plaintiff would have to PROVE that notice was RECEIVED by you.

We have not responded to their current attempts at contact. They are claiming that the buyer’s deed cannot be recorded by the county because this “tax” was not paid by us.
Based on your contract with the buyer, you can probably ignore this and see how it goes.

But I do suggest you review your contract with the title company. That might be a whole different story and whether you have to pay or not might not depend on anybody's responsibility for the omission.
 

ecs

Junior Member
Thanks. I went through my entire file of this transaction and I do not have any contract with the Title Company - nor do I recall ever signing anything like that. If I did, I surely would have made a copy and filed it. The buyer / buyer's attorney selected the Title Company. All I have from the Title Co. are the HUD-1 and a letter that was enclosed with a check they sent me for partial funds post-closing. All the other papers pertain to the property, listing agreement and sales contract.
 

adjusterjack

Senior Member
Thanks. I went through my entire file of this transaction and I do not have any contract with the Title Company - nor do I recall ever signing anything like that. If I did, I surely would have made a copy and filed it. The buyer / buyer's attorney selected the Title Company. All I have from the Title Co. are the HUD-1 and a letter that was enclosed with a check they sent me for partial funds post-closing. All the other papers pertain to the property, listing agreement and sales contract.

If you are sure that you never signed anything that obligates you to the title company then you may be in good shape to stand fast and ignore the attempts to coerce you into paying.
 
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ecs

Junior Member
Thanks - I looked at the links and I am sure I never saw or signed anything like them. I don't know what they might have required the buyer to sign, but I never saw anything like these.

Going through the file again, the only other papers I have from them are draft / working copies of papers we filled out and sent back through the real estate agent:

Information for real estate 1099-s report filing
Affidavit of title
receipt for $300 - what the title co. charged us for document preparation.
non-resident seller's tax declaration
tax declaration instructions
deed

Nothing like any contract with the title co.
 

latigo

Senior Member
Regarding your question of whether or not you could be effectively sued in New Jersey, the answer is yes. (See: New Jersey Long-Arm Statute, N. J. Court Rule 4;4-4(4) *

Now my question:

What leads you to believe that the title company is bound by the following agreement to which you claim that "All parties signed off on . . . ." (Noting that the title company was NOT a "party" to the real estate transaction.)

“If there is an error or omission in the adjustments or sums set forth within the HUD-1, the mistake shall be corrected and paid by the party owing same within ten (10) days following receipt of notice of the error or omission. This provision shall survive closing for 30 days then be of no force or effect.”

Because I can assure you that that the title company did not waive it's rights to adjust for it's own omissions and make necessary corrections to the closing statement. It owes the buyers $6700 and it is not about to eat it!
____________________


[*] 4:4-4. Summons; Personal Service; In Personam Jurisdiction


(4) Upon individual proprietors and real property owners, provided the action arises out of a business in which the individual is engaged within this State or out of any real property or interest in real property in this State owned by the individual, by delivering a copy of the summons and complaint to the individual if competent, or, whether or not the individual proprietor or property owner is competent, to a managing or general agent employed by the individual in such business or for the management of such real property, or if service cnnot be made in that manner, then by delivering a copy of the summons and complaint to any employee or agent of the individual within this State acting in the discharge of his or her duties in connection with the business or the management of the real property; (Emphasis added)
 

ecs

Junior Member
OK - so - how am I going to be delivered / served with a complaint if the Title Co. is in NJ and I am in FL.? There is no employee or agent in NJ to deliver a complaint to.

The Title Co. does not owe the buyers $6700. The Title Co. was supposed to collect a $6700 estimated NJ non-resident "tax". When it wasn't collected, we believed this to have been waived because there were no capital gains on the property, and by filing a NJ tax form, showing no capital gains, we would get it back anyway. Our real estate agent told us that had we used his title co. they would have waived it.

The problem for the buyers is that the deed cannot be recorded because this "tax" was not collected and paid. My question is: why did the buyers' attorney - who they hired to look out for their interests - and in whose office the closing was held - not pick up on this? We have heard absolutely nothing from either the buyers or their attorney. Only from the negligent title co. agent who created the mess and now expects us to clean it up.
 
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latigo

Senior Member
OK - so - how am I going to be delivered / served with a complaint if the Title Co. is in NJ and I am in FL.? There is no employee or agent in NJ to deliver a complaint to.
You aren't getting the message. Long-arm statutes are not designed to give the state courts personal jurisdiction over defendants served with process within the subject state! That is a given. No special statute needed.

The adjectives "long- arm" ought to suggest to you that such statutes vest the state courts with extraterritorial personal jurisdiction over NON-RESIDENTS! Non-residents whose listed activities/property ownership, etc., within New Jersey render them subject to the jurisdiction of its courts.

And a non-resident defendant is served with process in the same fashion as if located within New Jersey's borders.

The Title Co. does not owe the buyers $6700. The Title Co. was supposed to collect a $6700 estimated NJ non-resident tax. When it wasn't collected, we believed this to have been waived because there were no capital gains on the property, and by filing a NJ tax form, showing no capital gains, we would get it back anyway. Our real estate agent told us that had we used his title co. they would have waived it.
Perhaps that is so. But its moot because the fact remains that you were improperly credited with the $6700. And the title company is not going to absorb it.

But when you get served in Florida with the title company's New Jersey lawsuit I suggest that you talk to your attorney about an element of contract law known as "mutual mistake" and revision of contract to cure a mutual mistake!
 

ecs

Junior Member
Thanks. Here’s what I’m not getting:

How will I be served in FL? Logistics? Process server? Other? The only address they have for me is a PO Box mailing address, not a physical address. And I will not sign for any mailing that needs a signature. Plus – we are a husband / wife – so 2 people will have to be served. So – what happens if the complaint is undeliverable?

And again: Why did the buyers' attorney - who they hired to look out for their interests - and in whose office the closing was held - not pick up on this? We have heard absolutely nothing from either the buyers or their attorney. Only from the negligent title co. agent who created the mess and now expects us to clean it up.

We did nothing wrong. We received no official notice of any problem. Why not? Just more negligence upon negligence. We are simply abiding by the stipulations in the documents that everyone signed & agreed to. No one else is. So – let’s see what happens, I guess.

If they want to spend money for a lawsuit and I find myself served I guess I’ll just send the check. But there is no questions that it will then be pulling teeth to get an updated HUD-1 from this incompetent slug.
 

adjusterjack

Senior Member
I think two issues are being mixed up here.

1 - Being sued. Yes, you can be sued. You'd likely be served by a process server and there are private investigators who are well equipped to locate you in spite of your post office box.

2 - Whether you are liable for the money. I don't see it. So if you do get sued you defend.

As for why the lawyer missed it, do you really think anybody here is going to be able to answer that question? As far as I know, no telepaths participate here.
 

STEPHAN

Senior Member
The only address they have for me is a PO Box mailing address, not a physical address.
You are in for a lot of fun owing a house in a different state that you don't have control over anymore. You are the one responsible for taxes and fines. Hiding will not help.
 

ecs

Junior Member
You are in for a lot of fun owing a house in a different state that you don't have control over anymore. You are the one responsible for taxes and fines. Hiding will not help.
The new owners have been occupying the house for the past couple of months. I got my money after closing, so I don't own it, or owe anything on it. Any tax bill I receive I will send to the new owners. If I were the new owners, I would go to the title Co., ask them "what's up" and then sue them for their negligence in not processing the closing well enough to provide me with a deed. It is the Title Co. that is responsible for the royal screw-up in this matter.

I'm not hiding - I am just 1200 miles away.
 

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