What is the name of your state?Pa
Hello all, my name is Rick and I may have a fraud case. In a nutshell, when me and my ex-wife went to Domestic Relations to have child support taken out of my paycheck, she claimed that she was disabled from a vehicle accident she had when we were married. The support order was established in 2002. She used a doctors note/excuse(I'm not sure what to call it) to get her income level at $0. Usually, the courts, if one parent isn't working, will put that parents income at minimum wage or at $7/hr. With the doctors note, her income was put at $0. Since 2002, she has gone back to work on numerous occasions, but never stayed working longer than 3-4 months. Within the last 9 months she has worked a fuul time job, plus another half time job, and even more recently(the past 3-4 month), has remained at her full time job and has done overtime. I don't want to sound like the disgruntled ex-hubby, but since she used a doctors excuse to get her income set at $0, and she is obviously capable of working 40 hours a week and then some, isn't that concidered fraud(the use of a doctors excuse)? I haven't seen the doctors paperwork so I don't know what it states as far as complete and perminant disability, but the fact that she would use something like that to manipulate the system is reason enough for me to ask the question. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Hello all, my name is Rick and I may have a fraud case. In a nutshell, when me and my ex-wife went to Domestic Relations to have child support taken out of my paycheck, she claimed that she was disabled from a vehicle accident she had when we were married. The support order was established in 2002. She used a doctors note/excuse(I'm not sure what to call it) to get her income level at $0. Usually, the courts, if one parent isn't working, will put that parents income at minimum wage or at $7/hr. With the doctors note, her income was put at $0. Since 2002, she has gone back to work on numerous occasions, but never stayed working longer than 3-4 months. Within the last 9 months she has worked a fuul time job, plus another half time job, and even more recently(the past 3-4 month), has remained at her full time job and has done overtime. I don't want to sound like the disgruntled ex-hubby, but since she used a doctors excuse to get her income set at $0, and she is obviously capable of working 40 hours a week and then some, isn't that concidered fraud(the use of a doctors excuse)? I haven't seen the doctors paperwork so I don't know what it states as far as complete and perminant disability, but the fact that she would use something like that to manipulate the system is reason enough for me to ask the question. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
