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California, Is negligence per se an apporpriate action to take against a company that failed to comply with the time required in a statute to enforce a right, yet proceeded to act as if they did nothing wrong, and have deprived me of personal property?
California, Is negligence per se an apporpriate action to take against a company that failed to comply with the time required in a statute to enforce a right, yet proceeded to act as if they did nothing wrong, and have deprived me of personal property?
And, of course, it would all hinge on the salient facts that can be proven from the "OTHER" post. And I'm not so sure they can be, especially proof of service because there just are not any facts.
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