L
lissa j
Guest
What is the name of your state? california
I found this at a website and I have a question about item 5.
The approved jury instruction for negligent misrepresentation is more helpful than the statutory definition:
1. The defendant must have made a representation as to a past or existing material fact;
2. The representation must have been untrue;
3. Regardless of his actual belief the defendant must have made the representation without any reasonable ground for believing it to be true;
4. The representation must have been made with the intent to induce plaintiff to rely upon it;
5. The plaintiff must been unaware of the falsity of the representation; must have acted in reliance upon the truth of the representation and must have been justified in relying upon the representation;
6. And, finally, as a result of the reliance upon the truth of the representation, the plaintiff must have sustained damage.
If the plaintiff is reliant upon the truth of the representation to exercize a right the misrepresentation would deprive him of, why would it be necessary for the plaintiff to have been unaware of the falsity? that makes no sense.
My boyfriend has custody of his children. He owes money for child support arrears. The Child Support agency says his ex is owed money and they cannot negotiate them. They said at an administrative hearing they don't know how much is owed to the ex (hence how much owed to the state obvious negligence, they are supposed to know and I believe it should be easy enough to determine as well--that may be indicitave of intentional fraud but it isn't proof) if the arrears are all owed to the state and we have always believed they are. according to Ca Fam Law Code Sec. 17560 the agency has to have a program where they may accept offers in compromise of state-owed arrears. The agency does have such a program and their written policy is that upon certain conditions being present, they reduce the debt depending on income and expense factors and it could be reduced up to 100% my boyfriend would qualify my guess is that given his circumstances it would be a 100% reduction but even if not I know he has paid far more than the compromise amount would have been. Why would the plaintiff have to believe the representations were true in order to seek damages when he can't benefit from the right he is being deprived of even if he doesn't believe them? He has filed a claim for damages that was rejected and may sue them.
I have reasons for preferring this route even though we won't have an attorney to filing in family law court. I bet others in his shoes will have an attorney should he win.
I found this at a website and I have a question about item 5.
The approved jury instruction for negligent misrepresentation is more helpful than the statutory definition:
1. The defendant must have made a representation as to a past or existing material fact;
2. The representation must have been untrue;
3. Regardless of his actual belief the defendant must have made the representation without any reasonable ground for believing it to be true;
4. The representation must have been made with the intent to induce plaintiff to rely upon it;
5. The plaintiff must been unaware of the falsity of the representation; must have acted in reliance upon the truth of the representation and must have been justified in relying upon the representation;
6. And, finally, as a result of the reliance upon the truth of the representation, the plaintiff must have sustained damage.
If the plaintiff is reliant upon the truth of the representation to exercize a right the misrepresentation would deprive him of, why would it be necessary for the plaintiff to have been unaware of the falsity? that makes no sense.
My boyfriend has custody of his children. He owes money for child support arrears. The Child Support agency says his ex is owed money and they cannot negotiate them. They said at an administrative hearing they don't know how much is owed to the ex (hence how much owed to the state obvious negligence, they are supposed to know and I believe it should be easy enough to determine as well--that may be indicitave of intentional fraud but it isn't proof) if the arrears are all owed to the state and we have always believed they are. according to Ca Fam Law Code Sec. 17560 the agency has to have a program where they may accept offers in compromise of state-owed arrears. The agency does have such a program and their written policy is that upon certain conditions being present, they reduce the debt depending on income and expense factors and it could be reduced up to 100% my boyfriend would qualify my guess is that given his circumstances it would be a 100% reduction but even if not I know he has paid far more than the compromise amount would have been. Why would the plaintiff have to believe the representations were true in order to seek damages when he can't benefit from the right he is being deprived of even if he doesn't believe them? He has filed a claim for damages that was rejected and may sue them.
I have reasons for preferring this route even though we won't have an attorney to filing in family law court. I bet others in his shoes will have an attorney should he win.