I have often been told by people that the Declaration of Independence is not law, except for use as a point to determine when we legally separated from England, but i've never received a satisfactory explanation as to how it is not, and was hoping someone here could explain why.
My belief that the DoI may be law rests in the fact in its inclusion in the US Code under Organic Law. This belief is furthered by 1 USC 204(a) states
The only explanation i've received stating that the DoI is not law would be Cotting v. Godard from 1901. But because the USC wasn't completed until 1926, Cotting v. Godard isnt necessarily applicable anymore if 1 USC 204(a) did make the DoI law simply by inclusion in the USC.
And to address why is this in this part of the forum? Because I couldn't find a better place, and the DoI acknowledges the right to rebellion. If you think there is a better place to ask this question, please let me know.
My belief that the DoI may be law rests in the fact in its inclusion in the US Code under Organic Law. This belief is furthered by 1 USC 204(a) states
My reading of that gives the impression that any text included in the USC is prima facie law.The matter set forth in the edition of the Code of Laws of the United States current at any time shall, together with the then current supplement, if any, establish prima facie the laws of the United States...
The only explanation i've received stating that the DoI is not law would be Cotting v. Godard from 1901. But because the USC wasn't completed until 1926, Cotting v. Godard isnt necessarily applicable anymore if 1 USC 204(a) did make the DoI law simply by inclusion in the USC.
And to address why is this in this part of the forum? Because I couldn't find a better place, and the DoI acknowledges the right to rebellion. If you think there is a better place to ask this question, please let me know.
Last edited: