![]() |
| ||||||||||||
| |||||||||||||
| |||||||||||||
| |||||||
| | |
![]() |
| | LinkBack | Thread Tools | Rate Thread | Display Modes |
|
#1
| |||
| |||
| If a divorce decree states that wage garnishment will be done if child support isn't paid by statute, is this considered the same as an Order To Garnish Wages or does a new order have to be issued? And since both parents have moved to different states since the divorce, who would issue the new order if one is needed? Where would jurisdiction be? Teri |
|
#2
| |||
| |||
| No it is not the same. The Order is a separate court document. Jurisdiction could be multiple ie. the Order may come from the State the child lives in and served in the State the parent paying the child support lives/works in. |
![]() |