morecowbell
Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Massachusetts
My wife and I filed Ch.7 last year, before the legal changes went into effect. Our bankruptcy was discharged in September of 2005. We have an auto loan that we intended to reaffirm as part of the process. I recently discovered that due to an error on the part of the lender (at least that's what our lawyer says), the reaffirmation paperwork was never processed by the lender and never included in the filing. I have been making timely payments on the loan since we emerged from bankruptcy last year. However, since the lender never finished the process for filing the reaffirmation, the account has remained in their bankruptcy department and they have not been reporting any activity to the credit bureaus since March of 2005.
In speaking to the lender they say my options are as follows:
1. Reopen the bankruptcy case (which will of course cost money) and amend the filing to include the reaffirmation of the car loan. If I can provide some kind of proof that they screwed up, they will handle the costs to do this
2. Leave things "as is" and when the loan is paid off, it will show up as discharged in the bankruptcy on my credit report. Now this option obviously makes no sense. Why would I pay off the loan if they are going to report it as a ch. 7 discharged item?
Here's the interesting part. We are very much "upside down" on this loan. We owe about $4500 more on the loan than the car is actually worth. My lawyer said that since the reaffirmation agreement was not included in the filing, if I simply stop paying on it and tell the lender that they can have the car, they have no choice but to come get it and report the loan as discharged in the bankruptcy. He said that if we are upside-down on the loan, the last thing we want to do is reaffirm. In a sense, this could be a blessing in disguise that allows us to get out from under one more bad loan.
Right now this loan shows as paid as agreed on our credit reports. But as I mentioned, no payment activity has been reported by the lender for over a year. As I understand it, that in and of itself can be viewed by lenders as a negative. If I were to go ahead and stop paying this loan, and let it be reported as discharged in the bankruptcy, can someone give me a ballpark idea of how much of an additional negative impact this might have on our FICO scores? They already suck anyway (mid 500's) so I'm thinking I might be better off just giving up on this loan and starting over.
Any thoughts on this are appreciated.
Thanks!
My wife and I filed Ch.7 last year, before the legal changes went into effect. Our bankruptcy was discharged in September of 2005. We have an auto loan that we intended to reaffirm as part of the process. I recently discovered that due to an error on the part of the lender (at least that's what our lawyer says), the reaffirmation paperwork was never processed by the lender and never included in the filing. I have been making timely payments on the loan since we emerged from bankruptcy last year. However, since the lender never finished the process for filing the reaffirmation, the account has remained in their bankruptcy department and they have not been reporting any activity to the credit bureaus since March of 2005.
In speaking to the lender they say my options are as follows:
1. Reopen the bankruptcy case (which will of course cost money) and amend the filing to include the reaffirmation of the car loan. If I can provide some kind of proof that they screwed up, they will handle the costs to do this
2. Leave things "as is" and when the loan is paid off, it will show up as discharged in the bankruptcy on my credit report. Now this option obviously makes no sense. Why would I pay off the loan if they are going to report it as a ch. 7 discharged item?
Here's the interesting part. We are very much "upside down" on this loan. We owe about $4500 more on the loan than the car is actually worth. My lawyer said that since the reaffirmation agreement was not included in the filing, if I simply stop paying on it and tell the lender that they can have the car, they have no choice but to come get it and report the loan as discharged in the bankruptcy. He said that if we are upside-down on the loan, the last thing we want to do is reaffirm. In a sense, this could be a blessing in disguise that allows us to get out from under one more bad loan.
Right now this loan shows as paid as agreed on our credit reports. But as I mentioned, no payment activity has been reported by the lender for over a year. As I understand it, that in and of itself can be viewed by lenders as a negative. If I were to go ahead and stop paying this loan, and let it be reported as discharged in the bankruptcy, can someone give me a ballpark idea of how much of an additional negative impact this might have on our FICO scores? They already suck anyway (mid 500's) so I'm thinking I might be better off just giving up on this loan and starting over.
Any thoughts on this are appreciated.
Thanks!