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illegal to not disclose title brands not reported on out-of-state title?

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reverendalc

Junior Member
i'm in washington state. i purchased a motorcycle from a buyer with california plates and a california title. there were no brands on the CA title, and the seller had just titled it himself, so was selling it to me with an affidavit which also didn't show any brands. in hindsight, i know...

but my question remains: was it unlawful for this seller to not disclose any title brands at the time of sale?

it was misrepresented as a clean title motorcycle, and only now when i'm going to sell it do i notice the brand on the title.

thanks in advance!
 


justalayman

Senior Member
first, yes, not the wisest move


second, do you have proof of the statement it was a clean title?

there were no brands on the CA title, and the seller had just titled it himself,
if he had just titled it, why were you not provided the title?
 

reverendalc

Junior Member
I suppose I misspoke or mistyped.

He hadn't titled it, but had the signed over title and a bill of sale to himself. He then sold me the motorcycle with an affidavit in lieu of title and another bill of sale.

The craigslist listing stating clean title is long lost in the ether, but i'm scrounging the net for a cached copy. I wish I had access to Harmari.
None of the email or sms correspondence mentions the title status.

If I can prove it was misrepresented, do I have an actionable case?

Thanks!
 

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