What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Doesn't matter.
You've probably seen the terms of various contracts, particularly with websites and credit cards, that state that they (but not you) can unilaterally alter the terms of the contract at any time, for any reason, with or without notice.
Now, I don't deny for one second that it is legal to do that (I mean, they do it and get away with it, don't they?), but my question is, WHY is it allowed by the courts?
Think about it: Contracts can't just have mutual consideration; they have to have SUFFICIENT consideration. You can't just walk up to your drunk neighbor and go "Hey, that Mercedez looks good. I'll give you this post-it note for it!" They'll laugh you out of the court if you try and sue them for not transfering the title over to you. Why? Because consideration can't just be mutual; it has to be sufficient. In fact, some contracts (such as the example I just gave) can have consideration so insufficient that it is hard to tell if there was any consideration at all.
So, how can this thread's namesake contract, which states that the merchant or service provider can modify the terms of the contract and you're to be bound by them, possibly satisfy the sufficient consideration doctrine? What is the courts' reasoning behind that decision that that clause is physically capable of satisfying that doctrine?
You've probably seen the terms of various contracts, particularly with websites and credit cards, that state that they (but not you) can unilaterally alter the terms of the contract at any time, for any reason, with or without notice.
Now, I don't deny for one second that it is legal to do that (I mean, they do it and get away with it, don't they?), but my question is, WHY is it allowed by the courts?
Think about it: Contracts can't just have mutual consideration; they have to have SUFFICIENT consideration. You can't just walk up to your drunk neighbor and go "Hey, that Mercedez looks good. I'll give you this post-it note for it!" They'll laugh you out of the court if you try and sue them for not transfering the title over to you. Why? Because consideration can't just be mutual; it has to be sufficient. In fact, some contracts (such as the example I just gave) can have consideration so insufficient that it is hard to tell if there was any consideration at all.
So, how can this thread's namesake contract, which states that the merchant or service provider can modify the terms of the contract and you're to be bound by them, possibly satisfy the sufficient consideration doctrine? What is the courts' reasoning behind that decision that that clause is physically capable of satisfying that doctrine?