C
cehopp
Guest
Is it legal for companies that use sub-contractors to require the sub-contractors to sign a waiver to their right to use a lien against the property, for any payments due to the sub-contractor, of the customer of the original contracting entity.
I am being asked to sign a waiver to the right to put a lien against the property of a customer of a company I am just starting to sub-contract with.
If I do not sign the waiver form they will not use my services.
Does this or does this not amount to cohersion???
I used to do sub-contract work for a large retailer whos'
customers paid for their flooring material and labor on their credit card. They also required me to sign such a waiver. However the work order from the store to me also reflected the customers' having already paid via their credit card, aka/a copy of the purchase of product and labor reciept.
I had no problem with this in that it varified the customer had already paid for the labor part, thus in my mind taking them out of the obligation loop and putting all included in the contract in the realm of the stores responsibility.
However this new entity dosn't offer such assuredness.
Is this request by this company legal without assuring payment has been rendered by the customer, to them, for whom I will be performing the work on their home???
cehopp...
[Edited by Charles E. Hopper on 07-20-2001 at 01:15 AM]
I am being asked to sign a waiver to the right to put a lien against the property of a customer of a company I am just starting to sub-contract with.
If I do not sign the waiver form they will not use my services.
Does this or does this not amount to cohersion???
I used to do sub-contract work for a large retailer whos'
customers paid for their flooring material and labor on their credit card. They also required me to sign such a waiver. However the work order from the store to me also reflected the customers' having already paid via their credit card, aka/a copy of the purchase of product and labor reciept.
I had no problem with this in that it varified the customer had already paid for the labor part, thus in my mind taking them out of the obligation loop and putting all included in the contract in the realm of the stores responsibility.
However this new entity dosn't offer such assuredness.
Is this request by this company legal without assuring payment has been rendered by the customer, to them, for whom I will be performing the work on their home???
cehopp...
[Edited by Charles E. Hopper on 07-20-2001 at 01:15 AM]