Apple Mac OS X License Agreement Question

[newd00d]

I am wondering if installing Apple Mac OS X Software on a custom built PC Desktop Computer using an Apple-Branded Hard Disk to install the software onto within the PC would be a violation of the Mac OS X License Agreement?
In other words, I would be installing Mac OS X onto a PC which is not Apple-Branded, however the Hard Disk containing the software would indeed be Apple-Branded. Here is a link to the license agreement and a Hard Disk you can purchase from Apple for resale.

http://store.apple.com/Catalog/US/Images/MacOSX.htm

http://store.apple.com/us/product/MB984ZM/B?mco=MTQ0NjI2MzY

Thanks for your help in advance!

- Santa Cruz, CA

 

[cyjeff]

Google "Psystar".

Apple just won a decades long fight with a company doing just that... and has language built into the license agreement that expressly forbids the actions you wish to take.

If you wish to go down this route, I suggest you have a very large legal defense fund... and a great deal of patience.

 

[newd00d]

Apple Mac OS X License Agreement

Google "Psystar".

Apple just won a decades long fight with a company doing just that... and has language built into the license agreement that expressly forbids the actions you wish to take.

If you wish to go down this route, I suggest you have a very large legal defense fund... and a great deal of patience.

Yeah I am definitely aware of the Psystar vs. Apple case, and aware of the injunction ruling.

What I am asking is, basically, what does Apple constitute as being "Apple-Branded" components (like the hard drive?) and why do they call them Apple components when they are actually made by Intel, Foxconn, Seagate, nVidia etc.?

The same kind of scenario occurs when you discuss putting PC components (like a Foxconn PC motherboard, Seagate drive etc.) into an Apple-Branded case or enclosure (like the mac pro chassis, which can be purchased new and re-sold) in order to run Mac OS X Software. So, is it then only the motherboard and Boot Rom that you need (i.e. the Apple-Branded motherboard with EFI) in order to have a true Apple-Machine? If you can run Mac OS X without modifying any code, using the open-source EFI bootloader and a standard PC motherboard, then why is this not allowed?

I believe Apple is misrepresenting their own computer hardware components in order to make the "illusion" that they are proprietary with the software. To me, the adaptation of Intel hardware and architecture within their computers recognizes support for a much larger consumer base, and they should be forced to compete in this market.

I understand that Apple has a team of lawyers ready to strike at this kind of stuff, and they will use all their resources to battle the "mac clone" market. I am simply calling for some intelligent discussion regarding this matter, to see if Apple Inc. is standing on real legal ground.

Thanks again!

 

[The Occultist]

In order to use OSX, you must agree to the UA. You are essentially "signing" a contract whereby you agree to their terms. Should you break this contract, Apple may choose to pursue a civil action against you for breach of contract.

Whether or not they have any actual legal standing will likely take a court ruling to figure out (I'm betting, since it's their product and you're agreeing to the UA, that yeah, they do have the legal standing). So, the real question you need to ask yourself is, can you afford such a lawsuit?