Ok...but, if I'm just delusional for thinking this can work -- then why did you try it? If it's so impossible then why did you choose that strategy? It indicates that you must have felt that you had a legitimate defense and legitimate objections.
Are you implying that the attorney could have drafted the affidavit himself and submitted it as evidence, and that it would still have not been inadmissible despite all the criteria for labeling it as such?
Is that all the information I'd need to know about those cases? Why did the judge deny a motion to compel? What was the plaintiff's objection to the motion to compel? What is the reason you feel like affidavits are allowed to go unchecked?
Thanks for your help, and please don't be offended if I sound arbitrary.
I don't want someone to agree with me. I just want someone to actually look at this from the standpoint as a defendant. I want someone to look at the case as a challenge, and tell me what they would do, (within the realm of litigation). I don't have money to settle for a debt I've already paid, assuming it's even mine, assuming they have the legal right to sue, assuming they didn't put themselves in harm's way by buying junk debt, assuming that this 6 year old debt isn't beyond Texas' 4 year SOL, and so on.
As I mentioned earlier, the fact that some of you have been so judgmental and harsh, only makes me more driven to win. And I'm grateful for that.