Hello. I am in Massachusetts and have a question. I have recieved a letter from a man who claims I owe him $500.00 for a car I purchased from his wife about 3 years ago. The sale price of the car was $1000.00; I paid cash. He claims that because the terms of his divorce entitle him to 50% of all assests, I owe an additional 50% of that $1000.00, the $500.00, to him. I knew nothing of a divorce, his name was not on the title I recieved, but he claims that I am "co-conspirator." I have never seen any terms of divorce. Is there any validity to these claims?