What one knows and what one has a statistical likelihood of are very different things. I guarantee this question, or one similar, will come up more and more in the future as we understand the genetic code of humans. However, that will be then, this is now. (Current medical privacy laws would not have anything to do with this contractual issue.)
Can the OP make a case there was fraud in the inducement of marriage to the point of allowing an annulment? Maybe. I haven't researched it but bet there is not a case directly on point. What is "known"? What percentage chance is required for fraud? If a person knew, to 99% probability they could not conceive, I think that would be grounds for an annulment. 50%? Less? More? Ask the fact finder, it will not be a matter of law.
What practical difference does it make? Why go through all the expense and effort for a maybe annulment? If the OP is bothered so much about it, get a divorce. The actual process will be cheaper and easier, although there may be property and alimony issues which is what the OP may be worrying about. If so, it stands to reason the marriage is fairly long standing. A long-standing marriage with a conception is far less likely to have a court find for annulment anyway. So, for the general FreeAdvice annulment advice 1(a), if you don't want to be married, get a divorce.