stealth2 said:
What many people don't seem to understand is that a divorce decree doesn't automatically absolve a party of any and all financial obligations that are jointly held. Your friend and her husband signed a contract for a loan on this house. The lender is NOT bound by the family court order. Her name is still on the loan? Then she is equally responsible as he is - although she CAN take him back to family court to be found in contempt or sue him for whatever money she has to pay to make good on the loan.
While you are 100% correct about that something has to be "off" about this case. The divorce was 16 years ago. Even with a 30 year mortgage and even if the house was purchased fairly soon before the divorce, the house had to have gained a great deal of equity...and appreciation, during that time.
Therefore, there should be no reason why, even in a bankruptcy, the house shouldn't have sold for well above any amount remaining on the primary mortgage.....the only mortgage that she could be held responsible to pay.
Therefore I would definitely recommend an attorney to investigate exactly what happened here. There may be some type of fraud or malfeasance going on. 16 years ago interest rates for home mortgages were in the 10-11% range. Its unfathomable that someone with a mortgage from that period wouldn't have refinanced, maybe multiple times in the last 10 years....if the home was refinanced, then how would she still be on the mortgage?
See where my mind is going on this?