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#1
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| I married the same man twice. In 1963 we got married in Las Vegas, Nevada. In 1966 we got married again in California. There was no divorce from the first marriage. In 1977 we were divorced in California. Did the California divorce dissolve the Nevada marriage? |
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#2
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| Quote:
__________________ This is not legal advice. Double check everything with your own attorney and your state's laws. |
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#3
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| My response to LegalBeagle: LB, I think you should re-read this lady's post, and perhaps amend your response - - before I jump in. IAAL |
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#4
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| Actually, I did read it and was having my midday funny turn. I was expecting you to jump in with both feet telling me what an idiot I am ![]() I am not 100% sure.. but I think the answer is 'yes'.
__________________ This is not legal advice. Double check everything with your own attorney and your state's laws. |
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#5
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| My response: Of course the answer is "Yes". Her second marriage in California to the "same man" merely amounted to a "reaffirmation" of her marriage to the same man. Since a marriage occuring in any State is recognized in ANY State, the California, or second marriage, amounted to mere "surplusage", having no legal force or effect - - except a nice time was had by all. People get remarried to each other all the time ! Some people do it for their 25th and / or 50th Anniversaries. But, when she got divorced in California, that divorce decree "wiped out" her marriage altogether, no matter where she was married. So, dear writer, LegalBeagle was pulling on your hamstring - - it didn't matter if you were married in 1963 or again in 1966. There's no Bigamy. Although, Arkansas is beautiful this time of year. The ducks are quacking, the cows are mooing, and more people come out of their trailers than in any other Season. IAAL |
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