frankkitten
Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Wa.
OK, here's the thing. My ex and I got divorced in 2006. The house was awarded mine in the divorce decree and I have the signed-over quit claim deed from him. There was nothing stated in the decree that said I had to refinance at all and his name is still on the mortgage loan. Well, I was late a few times this year (job related issues) and it's apparently showing up on his credit. He's trying to buy a house and is claiming this is preventing him from doing so. I've talked to loan officers who say that if his credit is really good, these late payments shouldn't affect him. He swears that he "will force the sale of the house!" because it's affecting him and he's still on the loan. How is it even possible if he doesn't own the house?
OK, here's the thing. My ex and I got divorced in 2006. The house was awarded mine in the divorce decree and I have the signed-over quit claim deed from him. There was nothing stated in the decree that said I had to refinance at all and his name is still on the mortgage loan. Well, I was late a few times this year (job related issues) and it's apparently showing up on his credit. He's trying to buy a house and is claiming this is preventing him from doing so. I've talked to loan officers who say that if his credit is really good, these late payments shouldn't affect him. He swears that he "will force the sale of the house!" because it's affecting him and he's still on the loan. How is it even possible if he doesn't own the house?