Stephenopolis
Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? ILLINOIS
Hello,
I know this is long, but this is kind of complicated, so I don't want to leave aspects out.
My wife is from Scandinavia. We met a few times, got engaged, and eventually married (in Illinois, Kane County). After a little more than 1/2 year living together, she decided she needed a break. She told me she was leaving but would return, and went to stay with a friend in another state while she was reconsidering everything. There she stayed for about 3 or 4 months while I was sending her money the entire time to support her. She then told me she wasn't coming back, and next thing I knew, she was back in Scandinavia.
Her angry family members began threatening me, that if I didn't give her a giant sum of money to compensate for her incurred expenses (plane ticket, moving back, etc...) that he'd come after me with legal force to get it (They threatened big, but I really believe they don't have a leg to stand on). Anyway, I received a document from her country that as of last October, we were officially separated in her country (which as far as I know, does not apply here in the U.S.). In her country, 1 year of legal separation is required before a divorce is allowed. To my understanding, we will officially be divorced in October this year (again, only in her country, which I believe does not apply here).
There are no children (thank goodness), and there is no mortgage (thank goodness). We barely owned anything together, and I wasn't making very much money at all while we were together. She was not yet even a citizen of this country when she left, nor is she now. She has no social security number or tax ID, etc... She left me, there was no abuse or mistreating, which is something both parties would say. That being said;
My questions are,
- Does the fact that I will be legally divorced in her country apply in this country also, or do I have to get a lawyer and go to court to become officially divorced in this country?
- If I need to do something here in the US in order for it to be finalized, is it possible to do so without a lawyer?
- Is this a case of abandonment?
- Can she legally demand the compensation her father has threatened to take?
- Can she legally demand half of the assets (if it is or isn't a case of abandonment)?
- I know in divorce courts, it is mandatory to have the signatures of both parties in an uncontested divorce. I'm sure they have ways of getting by in scenarios when one party refuses, right? What about when one party has vanished? Because, in my case, I believe I have actually been abandoned as defined by the court's definition. So, my question has to do with getting her to cooperate. It's kind of hard to get somebody to play ball when their reason for leaving was that they no longer wanted to be on the team.
- Also, I get to decide how the inside of my car looks, until I sell it or give it away and it is no longer in my possession. I can't come back to it once I've given it up and start changing things on it as though I still own it. Similarly, if she has already legally divorced me in Norway, doesn't that constitute a willful surrendering of her rights to contest what she wants out of the divorce? To contest it would mean that somebody is challenging it, making terms for it or stipulations for it. My question, how can somebody make terms for something they have already wilfully disowned? Can she or can't she demand anything from me?
Your help would be much appreciated!
Thank you,
Stephen
Hello,
I know this is long, but this is kind of complicated, so I don't want to leave aspects out.
My wife is from Scandinavia. We met a few times, got engaged, and eventually married (in Illinois, Kane County). After a little more than 1/2 year living together, she decided she needed a break. She told me she was leaving but would return, and went to stay with a friend in another state while she was reconsidering everything. There she stayed for about 3 or 4 months while I was sending her money the entire time to support her. She then told me she wasn't coming back, and next thing I knew, she was back in Scandinavia.
Her angry family members began threatening me, that if I didn't give her a giant sum of money to compensate for her incurred expenses (plane ticket, moving back, etc...) that he'd come after me with legal force to get it (They threatened big, but I really believe they don't have a leg to stand on). Anyway, I received a document from her country that as of last October, we were officially separated in her country (which as far as I know, does not apply here in the U.S.). In her country, 1 year of legal separation is required before a divorce is allowed. To my understanding, we will officially be divorced in October this year (again, only in her country, which I believe does not apply here).
There are no children (thank goodness), and there is no mortgage (thank goodness). We barely owned anything together, and I wasn't making very much money at all while we were together. She was not yet even a citizen of this country when she left, nor is she now. She has no social security number or tax ID, etc... She left me, there was no abuse or mistreating, which is something both parties would say. That being said;
My questions are,
- Does the fact that I will be legally divorced in her country apply in this country also, or do I have to get a lawyer and go to court to become officially divorced in this country?
- If I need to do something here in the US in order for it to be finalized, is it possible to do so without a lawyer?
- Is this a case of abandonment?
- Can she legally demand the compensation her father has threatened to take?
- Can she legally demand half of the assets (if it is or isn't a case of abandonment)?
- I know in divorce courts, it is mandatory to have the signatures of both parties in an uncontested divorce. I'm sure they have ways of getting by in scenarios when one party refuses, right? What about when one party has vanished? Because, in my case, I believe I have actually been abandoned as defined by the court's definition. So, my question has to do with getting her to cooperate. It's kind of hard to get somebody to play ball when their reason for leaving was that they no longer wanted to be on the team.
- Also, I get to decide how the inside of my car looks, until I sell it or give it away and it is no longer in my possession. I can't come back to it once I've given it up and start changing things on it as though I still own it. Similarly, if she has already legally divorced me in Norway, doesn't that constitute a willful surrendering of her rights to contest what she wants out of the divorce? To contest it would mean that somebody is challenging it, making terms for it or stipulations for it. My question, how can somebody make terms for something they have already wilfully disowned? Can she or can't she demand anything from me?
Your help would be much appreciated!
Thank you,
Stephen