I'm thinking it can't possibly matter what state(s) he was married in... it's not as if anyone else would have to file for divorce in the state in which the marriage took place (I was married in KS and divorced in MO)...
But I'd love to know WHY this guy got married to the same person more than once... presumably without a divorce taking place in between. Is it bigamy if it's mulitple marriages to the same person?