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Old 07-18-2001, 12:23 PM
Frustrated in NewJersey
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Unhappy
We have been married for 6 yrs but living together for a total of 8 yrs with 1 child together. If my spouse had a home before we met am I entitled to any part of the home in the event of a divorce?
  #2  
Old 07-19-2001, 10:28 PM
Felis Lynx
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From reading these BBs from time to time I would say that the answer to your question is no
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Old 07-19-2001, 10:34 PM
maryp
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Hold on!

It very much depends on whether the house was owned lock, stock and barrel prior to the marriage.

If s/he contributed to any of the repayments, refurbishments, furniture etc. then they are entitled to something.

Hopefully one of our legal team will pop in and give Frustrated the low down.
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