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Problems with Vehicle after Divorce (My old topic got locked)

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EvilSpark

Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Washington

FROM PREVIOUS THREAD

What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Washington

Well, I have a big problem on my hands now..

I got divorced over 4 years ago. The agreement said that I was responsible for my vehicle, and she was responsible for hers.

Well, she did not want the vehicle anymore, and was either going to return it (my credit would've suffered) or I could take it.

We never changed the agreement, it was a really stupid mistake on my part.

Well, I've paid over 10,000 on the vehicle (after the divorce) and finally got the pink slip to it.

THEN! She comes back, claiming it is her vehicle (with copy of the decree in one hand) and she wants it NOW. I told her, this is completely unfair, I paid it off. I told her if she wanted it, I would be more than happy to sign a release of interest for a check for the amount I paid after our divorce.

She then proceeds to call the police. She had apparently, went to the DOL with the papers and got it switched into her name (mind you, this is 4 years after the divorce, she didn't do this until now). Police respond, and they tell her she cannot do anything because she only has registration papers (not vaild proof of ownership) and a court order that doesn't contain a VIN. I showed the officer the title, and he told her, the vehicle remains at my property (the title has my name, her name and my house address) because I was able to establish proof of ownership. He tells her to come back when she gets the updated title from the DOL.

She refuses to sign a release of interest (I had one she signed after our divorce, but she never had it notorized so I could never file it) until I pay her $5,000 (blue book price of the vehicle now) or give her my vehicle.

I have reciepts for my payments to the finance company and an un-notorized release of interest from her (probably means nothing).

What papers would I have to fill out and file to challenge her? I do not want her getting my paid off vehicle.

and yes, I realize it was a huge error on my part to not have amended the original agreement. I am just not to lose $10,000


Added Information

Well, after reading a bit, there were some questions.

Yes, in the papers she was awarded the vehicle. She was also held responsible for the car payments.

The title has BOTH of our names on it. I cannot sign the title and it be done, it needs BOTH, so I'm assuming its an "and" title. I didn't know states issued titles with Someone or Someone Else

Basically, I am asking, is there anyway I can get this into Court to have a judge look at the fact that, yes the vehicle was awarded to her, but she did not complete any payments. Had I not done any payments, this vehicle would've been history and hurt both of our credits.

The bank held the title while the payments were being made, and she never had the car refinanced, never contacted me after giving it to me until NOW. I had no idea where she had went, and was unable to find her to do anything on the title or financing after the divorce. if she would've said "I'm taking my car" right after the divorce, I would've given it to her, but after spending $10,000 of my own money, and boosting mine (and her) credit scores, I do not see how any judge would tell me that I have to just "give" her the car.

I was doing some reading, and this link (Vehicle Ownership - Family Law, Divorce, Child Custody and Adoption in Maryland | LawGuru Answers) seems to provide that I might be able to file a "declaratory judgment action".

Pretty much, all I need to know is, what the hell do I have to do to get a judge to at least look at this.
 


LdiJ

Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Washington

FROM PREVIOUS THREAD

What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Washington

Well, I have a big problem on my hands now..

I got divorced over 4 years ago. The agreement said that I was responsible for my vehicle, and she was responsible for hers.

Well, she did not want the vehicle anymore, and was either going to return it (my credit would've suffered) or I could take it.

We never changed the agreement, it was a really stupid mistake on my part.

Well, I've paid over 10,000 on the vehicle (after the divorce) and finally got the pink slip to it.

THEN! She comes back, claiming it is her vehicle (with copy of the decree in one hand) and she wants it NOW. I told her, this is completely unfair, I paid it off. I told her if she wanted it, I would be more than happy to sign a release of interest for a check for the amount I paid after our divorce.

She then proceeds to call the police. She had apparently, went to the DOL with the papers and got it switched into her name (mind you, this is 4 years after the divorce, she didn't do this until now). Police respond, and they tell her she cannot do anything because she only has registration papers (not vaild proof of ownership) and a court order that doesn't contain a VIN. I showed the officer the title, and he told her, the vehicle remains at my property (the title has my name, her name and my house address) because I was able to establish proof of ownership. He tells her to come back when she gets the updated title from the DOL.

She refuses to sign a release of interest (I had one she signed after our divorce, but she never had it notorized so I could never file it) until I pay her $5,000 (blue book price of the vehicle now) or give her my vehicle.

I have reciepts for my payments to the finance company and an un-notorized release of interest from her (probably means nothing).

What papers would I have to fill out and file to challenge her? I do not want her getting my paid off vehicle.

and yes, I realize it was a huge error on my part to not have amended the original agreement. I am just not to lose $10,000


Added Information

Well, after reading a bit, there were some questions.

Yes, in the papers she was awarded the vehicle. She was also held responsible for the car payments.

The title has BOTH of our names on it. I cannot sign the title and it be done, it needs BOTH, so I'm assuming its an "and" title. I didn't know states issued titles with Someone or Someone Else

Basically, I am asking, is there anyway I can get this into Court to have a judge look at the fact that, yes the vehicle was awarded to her, but she did not complete any payments. Had I not done any payments, this vehicle would've been history and hurt both of our credits.

The bank held the title while the payments were being made, and she never had the car refinanced, never contacted me after giving it to me until NOW. I had no idea where she had went, and was unable to find her to do anything on the title or financing after the divorce. if she would've said "I'm taking my car" right after the divorce, I would've given it to her, but after spending $10,000 of my own money, and boosting mine (and her) credit scores, I do not see how any judge would tell me that I have to just "give" her the car.

I was doing some reading, and this link (Vehicle Ownership - Family Law, Divorce, Child Custody and Adoption in Maryland | LawGuru Answers) seems to provide that I might be able to file a "declaratory judgment action".

Pretty much, all I need to know is, what the hell do I have to do to get a judge to at least look at this.
My opinion is that the car is her property, and you have to give it to her or you will be in contempt of court.

However, I also believe that she is in contempt of court because she didn't make the payments as per the divorce decree. You also had use of the car during the period in question, so that mitigates her contempt partially, but you should be able to hold her responsible for a portion of the payments that you made.
 

mistoffolees

Senior Member
My opinion is that the car is her property, and you have to give it to her or you will be in contempt of court.

However, I also believe that she is in contempt of court because she didn't make the payments as per the divorce decree. You also had use of the car during the period in question, so that mitigates her contempt partially, but you should be able to hold her responsible for a portion of the payments that you made.
Which happens to be almost exactly the response I made before jetx hijacked the thread.
 

EvilSpark

Junior Member
Thanks for the advice!

I really apperciate it!

Does anyone know what papers I would have to file in order to get this looked at by a judge? Ultimatly, it is up to a judge, I just don't know which papers to file, and due to a rebellious 14 year old daughter getting in trouble, I am broke right now

I don't care if I get the whole $10,000 back.. The vehicle is only worth $5,000 now.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
Thanks for the advice!

I really apperciate it!

Does anyone know what papers I would have to file in order to get this looked at by a judge? Ultimatly, it is up to a judge, I just don't know which papers to file, and due to a rebellious 14 year old daughter getting in trouble, I am broke right now

I don't care if I get the whole $10,000 back.. The vehicle is only worth $5,000 now.
I am not sure that you would even get 5k back, because you had the use of the car for the time period.

Pretend its not a car...pretend its a house that was owned by someone else, but they let you live there as long as you paid the house payments. It would still be their house, and you would have no claim to it. You would be a tenant.

Its not quite the same situation for you as the above example, because you were legally responsible for the loan, and the divorce decree made her responsible for paying it, but some portion of the same principle would apply.

I am not sure that you should do anything at all at this point. It may be better to wait and see what she does, and then respond to her suit.
 

EvilSpark

Junior Member
I don't think she will be filing anything. I think she is going to get the title from the DOL, come to my house with the police and have them force me to hand over the vehicle.

I'd like to be as proactive as I can. If I initate something in court now, at least I *might* have a chance at getting *something* rather than nothing..
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
I don't think she will be filing anything. I think she is going to get the title from the DOL, come to my house with the police and have them force me to hand over the vehicle.

I'd like to be as proactive as I can. If I initate something in court now, at least I *might* have a chance at getting *something* rather than nothing..
Until she actually takes the car from you, there is nothing to initiate. It would be awkward to file for contempt against her for non-payment of the loan, if you have possession of the vehicle.
 

mistoffolees

Senior Member
Until she actually takes the car from you, there is nothing to initiate. It would be awkward to file for contempt against her for non-payment of the loan, if you have possession of the vehicle.
He could voluntarily turn the car back to her (and sign over the title) and THEN initiate contempt charges, but frankly, I'm not sure it's worth the bother to file - since it's not clear why he should get anything.

He has kept the car, in clear violation of the judge's orders. That alone won't make the judge happy. Ex can simply ask to be reimbursed for his use of the car. Left to determine the value for his use of the car, judge might simply throw his hands in the air and say "seems that the cost of the mortgage payments is a reasonable payment for his use of the car" and decide she owes him nothing. That would be about $200 per month which is not an unreasonable lease rate.

It was foolish to keep the car for 4 years. He should have straightened it out right at the start before he was out $10 K and while the car was still worth something.
 

EvilSpark

Junior Member
He has kept the car, in clear violation of the judge's orders. That alone won't make the judge happy. Ex can simply ask to be reimbursed for his use of the car. Left to determine the value for his use of the car, judge might simply throw his hands in the air and say "seems that the cost of the mortgage payments is a reasonable payment for his use of the car" and decide she owes him nothing. That would be about $200 per month which is not an unreasonable lease rate.


$200.00/mo would be FINE. I was paying $400.00 a month for the car.

Not to mention, when she left the car 4 years ago, it had 60k on it, and has 74k now, so I didn't use the vehicle much.

I owned my house before the marriage, and paid for it, after the divorce, she didn't pay anything, so I don't see how that is related.

My question is not will I win, it is WHAT DO I DO TO HAVE THIS LOOKED AT BY A JUDGE?

Would a declaratory judgment action be the best course of action?
 

mistoffolees

Senior Member
$200.00/mo would be FINE. I was paying $400.00 a month for the car.

Not to mention, when she left the car 4 years ago, it had 60k on it, and has 74k now, so I didn't use the vehicle much.

I owned my house before the marriage, and paid for it, after the divorce, she didn't pay anything, so I don't see how that is related.

My question is not will I win, it is WHAT DO I DO TO HAVE THIS LOOKED AT BY A JUDGE?

Would a declaratory judgment action be the best course of action?
I assumed that you had the car for the full time and $10 K / 48 months is close to $200. The point was that you might well be charged WHATEVER you paid for the use of the car - and come out with nothing.

You've already got your answer to the rest. You're going to look like a fool if you try to file for contempt while the car is in your possession. You need to return the car to her and then file for contempt.

HOWEVER, I think it's a mistake. You're unlikely to get much, if anything, and you could well be slapped with a significant penalty for violating the judge's orders.

If it were me, I'd turn the car back to her and forget about it.
 

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