What is the name of your state? GA
My husband and I have been married for 23 years and separated for10 months -- nothing legal, just living separately, he pays his bills (not really), and I pay mine. He was cheating on me, and I threw him out of the house we bought 10 years ago. For the last 4 years, I have been the primary bread winner. He lost his good paying job of 20 yrs & was never able to return to a decent paying job (i.e., he makes about 50% of what he used to make). Prior to him losing his job, we lived comfortably in part due to several years of substantial 401k withdrawals from MY 401k (at least $75k withdrawn).
My question is this: My husband has just called out of the blue wanting me to fax a letter to someone stating that I am paying all of the mortgage payments, and send copies of cancelled checks to prove the same, and provide him with copies of his 2006 w-2 forms. All this in order for him to buy 2 1/2 acres of land with a trailer on it. He is currently renting a duplex for $600/mth, & states that this will cost him about $400/mth & it is the only way he can pay all of his bills & keep up without a roommate or living in the projects.
I told him that I wanted him to sign something stating that he had no claim to the house. He has verbally agreed. I need some guidance to know if this is even legal & binding. Basically, I want the equity in the house & want to make sure that I'm not falling into a trap by him, and that he would not later be able to try to claim part of the equity.
I know some of you will say that he is due some equity, but there are alot of other issues, such as debts I have taken on, and dependent children in college for which he is not helping on at all!
I just want to make sure the paper he signs will be legal & binding, that he is not entitled to any equity in the house.
Your input is very much appreciated!!!
My husband and I have been married for 23 years and separated for10 months -- nothing legal, just living separately, he pays his bills (not really), and I pay mine. He was cheating on me, and I threw him out of the house we bought 10 years ago. For the last 4 years, I have been the primary bread winner. He lost his good paying job of 20 yrs & was never able to return to a decent paying job (i.e., he makes about 50% of what he used to make). Prior to him losing his job, we lived comfortably in part due to several years of substantial 401k withdrawals from MY 401k (at least $75k withdrawn).
My question is this: My husband has just called out of the blue wanting me to fax a letter to someone stating that I am paying all of the mortgage payments, and send copies of cancelled checks to prove the same, and provide him with copies of his 2006 w-2 forms. All this in order for him to buy 2 1/2 acres of land with a trailer on it. He is currently renting a duplex for $600/mth, & states that this will cost him about $400/mth & it is the only way he can pay all of his bills & keep up without a roommate or living in the projects.
I told him that I wanted him to sign something stating that he had no claim to the house. He has verbally agreed. I need some guidance to know if this is even legal & binding. Basically, I want the equity in the house & want to make sure that I'm not falling into a trap by him, and that he would not later be able to try to claim part of the equity.
I know some of you will say that he is due some equity, but there are alot of other issues, such as debts I have taken on, and dependent children in college for which he is not helping on at all!
I just want to make sure the paper he signs will be legal & binding, that he is not entitled to any equity in the house.
Your input is very much appreciated!!!
