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mshely69

Junior Member
I live in Ohio and am married.very unhappy and want to leave.the car is in his name would i get in trouble if i take car when i leave with it then file for Divorce?What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?
 


Ohiogal

Queen Bee
I live in Ohio and am married.very unhappy and want to leave.the car is in his name would i get in trouble if i take car when i leave with it then file for Divorce?What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?
take it where? Does he have a car? When was the car bought? How long you been married? More details.
 

mshely69

Junior Member
been married 3 years..bought car after married ,,he has a car too both are in his name..i was going to take it and stay with a friend then when i get there to friends house work on filing for divorce
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
been married 3 years..bought car after married ,,he has a car too both are in his name..i was going to take it and stay with a friend then when i get there to friends house work on filing for divorce
In that case, you can take the car. Its marital property and you would each end up with a car in the divorce.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
In that case, you can take the car. Its marital property and you would each end up with a car in the divorce.
I wouldn't say that. n You don't know the source of funds used to buy it.

What if he used non-comingled PREMARITAL funds to buy the car? Just converted one form of premarital asset into another? It still would not automatically be a marital asset.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
I wouldn't say that. n You don't know the source of funds used to buy it.

What if he used non-comingled PREMARITAL funds to buy the car? Just converted one form of premarital asset into another? It still would not automatically be a marital asset.
Well, that is technically possible, but I have yet to see any divorce, (unless there was only one car to start with) where both spouses didn't walk away with a vehicle.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
Well, that is technically possible, but I have yet to see any divorce, (unless there was only one car to start with) where both spouses didn't walk away with a vehicle.
Since we have no idea what the source of funds may be, I don't think we should unilaterally declare it no problem if she takes a car titled to him. One is not automatically entitled to a car simply because they were married.

Example: What if he used a non comingled inheritance? Why would she have a right to drive off with his inheritance?

They are potentially entitled to share any marital vehicles.
 

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