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  #1  
Old 05-10-2006, 12:48 AM
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sign or not to sign


What is the name of your state? NJ
The ex-husband and the wife has a deed as of 06/96. Now that they are divorced, the ex husband won't sign a new deed, after the final property settlement agreement dated 01/06, that the wife will keep the house. The ex husband said that his signiture is not needed into the new deed. If his signiture is REALLY required, how can I force him to sign to RELINQUISH HIS RIGHTS TO THE HOUSE? THANKS - Dan
  #2  
Old 05-10-2006, 05:35 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dtcr
What is the name of your state? NJ
The ex-husband and the wife has a deed as of 06/96. Now that they are divorced, the ex husband won't sign a new deed, after the final property settlement agreement dated 01/06, that the wife will keep the house. The ex husband said that his signiture is not needed into the new deed. If his signiture is REALLY required, how can I force him to sign to RELINQUISH HIS RIGHTS TO THE HOUSE? THANKS - Dan
Is there anybody who could help me? If the divorce AND property settlement are final and the court has signed off on the deal that the wife will keep the house, can the ex still NOT to sign the new deed to relinquish his rights of the marital home? She wants him out of the deed, as stated in the final settlement. HE BELIEVES HIS SIGNITURE IS NOT NEEDED IN THE NEW DEED. How can I force him to sign the new deed? Is he contempt of law? Please help..
  #3  
Old 05-10-2006, 07:46 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dtcr
Is there anybody who could help me? If the divorce AND property settlement are final and the court has signed off on the deal that the wife will keep the house, can the ex still NOT to sign the new deed to relinquish his rights of the marital home? She wants him out of the deed, as stated in the final settlement. HE BELIEVES HIS SIGNITURE IS NOT NEEDED IN THE NEW DEED. How can I force him to sign the new deed? Is he contempt of law? Please help..
Who the heck are you in this whole thing? You can't do anything.
She can take him back to court and file a show cause for contempt. HOWEVER has she refinanced the house? If not she needs to get his name off the mortgage in order for a judge to make him relinquish his name on the deed. That is only fair. YOU can't do anything however.
  #4  
Old 05-11-2006, 06:56 AM
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I'm a friend of the wife mentioned. THANKS Ohiogal for your reply. At least we know our next step.. KEEP UP THE GOOD WORK.. THIS WEBSITE IS REALLY AWESOME. WE'LL RECOMMEND YOE TO OUR ASSOCIATES AND FRIENDS.
  #5  
Old 05-11-2006, 07:06 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ohiogal
Who the heck are you in this whole thing? You can't do anything.
She can take him back to court and file a show cause for contempt. HOWEVER has she refinanced the house? If not she needs to get his name off the mortgage in order for a judge to make him relinquish his name on the deed. That is only fair. YOU can't do anything however.
Actually, from the exact tenor and phrasing of the post, she can't even do this.
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  #6  
Old 05-11-2006, 02:00 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BelizeBreeze
Actually, from the exact tenor and phrasing of the post, she can't even do this.
Okay going by the exact words yes she can't do that. HOWEVER, if the judge said she is entitled to full legal possession of the house then.....
  #7  
Old 05-11-2006, 02:42 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ohiogal
Okay going by the exact words yes she can't do that. HOWEVER, if the judge said she is entitled to full legal possession of the house then.....
now biker chic.....possession is NOT legal ownership...ya know???
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  #8  
Old 05-12-2006, 12:21 AM
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It's written and agreed upon by both parties, and in front of the judge - that she could keep the house. And now the ex-husband won't sign.. What's that, a game.. I don't think so...
  #9  
Old 05-12-2006, 06:02 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dtcr
It's written and agreed upon by both parties, and in front of the judge - that she could keep the house. And now the ex-husband won't sign.. What's that, a game.. I don't think so...
No it is not. Ya know why? Because a court order is NEVER written that way. So, unless you have the court order in front of you and can recreate it here, the answer is no.
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  #10  
Old 05-12-2006, 08:01 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BelizeBreeze
now biker chic.....possession is NOT legal ownership...ya know???
Yeah yeah..i lapsed. Into believing that since all the cases I have legal ownership has been given that OP meant that. BAD ASSUMPTION. I'm going to go take my Migraine meds now. Thank you very much.
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