| This confuses me, and especially that his attorney is telling him this. You can divorce a spouse without their approval/consent, because it is the judge that grants the divorce, not your spouse.
For example, if they filed for divorce on the grounds of "irretrievable breakdown of the marriage with spouses living separate and apart for two years" then once that two year time period is over (and they've been separated for 3 years, right?), he can go before a judge and ask the judge to grant the divorce. Of course, she can then claim that he hasn't given her half his pension and he can provide the judge with proof that he has. But again, it's the judge that grants the divorce, not the spouse, so he doesn't have to have her consent to get a divorce.
My disclaimer--I AM NOT AN ATTORNEY, and I think he needs to discuss this in more detail with his attorney.
Last edited by pty; 07-08-2005 at 11:58 AM.
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