I know California is a Communty property state but how far does that go. If we both had homes before marriage and during the marriage used the homes equally for living and tax reasons, what happens now that I sold the one I owned and we live in hers now. Could I be intitled to some of the equity in her house? We never put the others name on our homes so her house still has her name only. Also during our marriage I sold a rental property at a loss which made our tax refund go from owing $1000 to getting $11000 back in taxes, does that account for anything?