<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by bst97:
My wife and I have been married just over 4 years. We have lived in the house she owned at the time we were married. It is still solely in her name. It has appreciated quite a bit during our four year marriage. Generally, would I be entitled to any of the proceeds from the sale?<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
My response:
Do you see that writing in RED, above? Without a State name, we can't even attempt to assist you, if we're even able to assist you at all. Laws are different everywhere.
IAAL
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