Sale of Home

[bst97]

My wife and I have been married just over 4 years. We are living in the house she owned before we were married in New Hampshire. It's value has appreciate quite abit during our 4 year marriage. Would I be entitled to any portion of the proceeds if the house is sold or any monies from her if the house is nopt sold?

[This message has been edited by bst97 (edited July 25, 2000).]

 

[paula2]

In most states anything owned before a marriage does not become martial property because of the marriage,unless she added you name to the deed. I'm not sure what the laws concerning this are in NH, but maybe someone else here can assist you.

 

[usdeeper]

The property becomes marital property if you have contributed in anyway to its upkeep or payments of the mortgage etc..

Therefore, if your paycheck is paying for the mortgage or has paid for improvements etc.. then it has changed from separate property to marital property.

I think, the only exception to this is CA.


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SMILE - Start Making It Livable for Everyone

Divorce is a process over which children have no control. Children should not be its victims.
When parents are under stress, it is harder to be in touch with their children's pain and anguish.
It takes time, effort, and planning on the part of the parents to be able to provide for the children's needs.
In the crisis of divorce, parents may put their children on hold while they attend to adult problems first.
Sometimes separating/divorced parents find that their roles and expectations are undefined and cloudy.
If handled properly, divorce need not be devastating for children.

 

[paula2]

He may only be entitled to be reimbursed to that which he has contributed to the house and will need canceled checks and reciepts proving this. In Ky, if you owned it before the marriage it does not become marital assets because of the marriage.