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Old 07-18-2000, 03:16 AM
denny
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In a case where child support payments were contained in dissolution of marriage default judgement, the time period for making payments stopped after both children
reached the age of majority, no payments however were ever paid because the party that was orderred to make the payments, was never notified of such or even of the petion for dissolution. Both subject children reached the age of majority without ever recieving and without ever applying for any
kind of taxpayer aid or benefits of any kind. There is no public entity that is owed any money, nor is there any chance left that
any aid for support of either minor will ever be necessary, as the children are already adults. The support order has expired. The State has had no interest vested
nor is it posible for them to have one in the future. How and Where does the state get authority (with no interest in), to suspend the drivers lisence? and intervene ?in this civil matter, under the guise of child support when there are no children, and when there were they never recieved any form of aid or assistance of any kind. Before the State can take away constitutional rights,
is it not necessary for them to show that there is an overriding state interest, and even then do they not have to do so only in a manner that is directed at that same interest. Also having intervened without a justifiable interest, is the state then liable for the damages they have caused?
 



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