OK.So, the lady decided to give a gift to her son.
Then my wife IS responsible for half of the debt or she loss the home to foreclosure, correct?
Thank you for your time
OK.So, the lady decided to give a gift to her son.
That doesn't mean she wasn't mentally competent to make a gift.However, when he received the 120K, the MIL was diagnosed to be in the beginning stages of Altzeimers
BIL is not financially able to make it right.Does brother-in-law have the financial ability to make this right? If it was a gift, the money is his.
I know. However, I knew her pretty well and knew she would have never done this in her right mind.That doesn't mean she wasn't mentally competent to make a gift.
agreed. TYA suggestion is to keep this as amiable as possible. This could be a difficult situation depending on the disposition of brother-in-law.
Yet, even according to your numbers, she gifted $50k before there was ever a concern. Apparently, she would do this when she's "in her right mind."I know. However, I knew her pretty well and knew she would have never done this in her right mind.
Actually, the 30K she loaned him in 2006-2007 was secured by a promissory note which he stopped paying on in may of 2010 and still owes 17K.Yet, even according to your numbers, she gifted $50k before there was ever a concern. Apparently, she would do this when she's "in her right mind."
The note would be an asset of the estate.Actually, the 30K she loaned him in 2006-2007 was secured by a promissory note which he stopped paying on in may of 2010 and still owes 17K.
The rest I'm not sure about.
Even if the note was in the trust (which is not a known fact yet), brother would "inherit" half of the remainder and trust distribution would not be reduced by the full amount.I think that the obvious is kind of being ignored here.
Normally in a situation like this the house would be sold to retire the equity loan and then the remainder of the proceeds split between the two heirs. The question is whether or not the brother's share of the remaining proceeds should be reduced by the amount of money that he has already received. Obviously, the remainder of the 30k loan note (17k) would reduce his share by that amount. The question remaining is the 120k that was used to pay for the down payment on his home.
If I were the brother, I would consider myself as having received 137k of my share early. Unfortunately, the brother may not look at it that way.
I am not really sure of the total assets besides her 401k, her home, and a 30k CD.I agree and that was the reason for my questions, "What are "all her assets including her home"? What is the value of "all of her assets"? Perhaps there are enough of other "assets" to make this a workable situation. Otherwise this will be messy.