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traceyparker1

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? MA

Hi, any advice on this would be appreciated! My husband works in a supervisory position for a large national company. He was hired last May and was told he would be working a minimum of 32 hours a week and was classed as full time and entitled to full time benefits. Since May, he has, indeed, worked 32+ hours a week. However, his manager is now telling him that as the time between Jan and April are slow periods, his hours will be cut to part time. Obviously, this concerns us as our mortgage payments are relaint on him getting paid as a full time worker. When he was hired he was never given a formal written contract, nor anything in writing about the benefits he was entitled to. He has spoken to HR and they told him he must speak to the manager. he has spoken to the manager and she refers him to HR!! My questions are:

1) Can they legally just cut his hours because of the slow period? He was never informed of this at the time of hire.
2) How can he find out if he even has a contract or if he is entitled to vacation/sick time, etc.

Thanks....
Tracey
 


cbg

I'm a Northern Girl
1.) Yes. In the absence of a contract saying otherwise, his hours or even his employment can be cut as business needs require.

2.) If he didn't sign a contract and if there is no union, then he is not under contract. That's common sense. He is entitled to whatever vacation or sick time the company offers; the law does not dictate what, or even whether, vacation and sick time are offered. For that question, he will need to speak to someone in HR or management.
 

traceyparker1

Junior Member
Thanks for the prompt response, cbg...Not the answers I was hoping for but kind of what I was expecting. I appreciate it!

Tracey
 

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