The agreement I signed a year ago with a consulting company reads: "...Employee shall not during the term of this Agreement, and for a period of one year thereafter, perform services for any __co-name__ client for which Employee provided services under this agreement..."
I have the following points to make; how valid are these in challenging the Agreement in Texas? :
1. No consideration (other than salary and worth-less stock options) was given in return for me signing this employment agreement (TX is an at-will state)
2. Is this too broad (in area and bus types)?
3. My employeer has fired 2/3 of it's employees in 6 months and I am reasonably worried the company will go under soon or I may loose the only source of income for my family of 4
4. I have evidence of rejections to many, many employment applications and resumes I've sent, and this would be the only offer I would be receiving
5. The "client" has recently divested a bus unit that keeps their original name under which I worked for; the unit that I worked for is being renamed (new corporate identity).
I have the following points to make; how valid are these in challenging the Agreement in Texas? :
1. No consideration (other than salary and worth-less stock options) was given in return for me signing this employment agreement (TX is an at-will state)
2. Is this too broad (in area and bus types)?
3. My employeer has fired 2/3 of it's employees in 6 months and I am reasonably worried the company will go under soon or I may loose the only source of income for my family of 4
4. I have evidence of rejections to many, many employment applications and resumes I've sent, and this would be the only offer I would be receiving
5. The "client" has recently divested a bus unit that keeps their original name under which I worked for; the unit that I worked for is being renamed (new corporate identity).