U
uptop
Guest
At my job, we are paid .65/100 words for time coded transcription. Without a time code, the rate is .50/100 words. After two months on the job, I was encouraged to pay a $250 deposit for an automatic time code machine, and was told by my Supervisor to continue to bill at the time code rate (.65/100). For over 10 months (20+ invoices) everything was fine. Two days ago, I was told that, although "this should have been caught before," the rate with the automatic time code is only .50/100, and not what I had been told. Now the boss wants ME to pay back, out of future checks, what he calls an "overpayment" and I call my agreed upon wage. He has also "fixed" my last invoice to reflect the lower wage. My supervisor has made several mistakes which have cost me money, but nothing like this. How is that they can accept and pay invoices for 10 months, then say it was a mistake? And if I just did what I was told by my supervisor, should I have to pay them back? Isn't that garnishing wages? I'd appreciate any input.