T
teddyfuzz
Guest
California- Four weeks ago, my husband and I applied for a home equity loan to consolidate our bills, and lower our monthly payment. Two weeks ago, the union that I belong to at work, ordered a strike against my employer for unfair labor practices, and we have now been on strike for 11 days. I didn't think it was necessary to inform the lender since it really doesn't affect my ability to repay the loan.
Two days ago, the loan agent called and said that the loan was ready to go, and that the only thing he had to do was to verify my employment. He said that he had been unable to reach anyone at the number that I had given him (human resources). I gave him the number of my supervisor, knowing that she could verify that I did, indeed, work there. When the lender called my supervisor to verify my employment, my supervisor informed him that we were on strike. Now we don't get the loan.
Even though we are on strike, I am still an employee of the company. I think that this was done in retaliation of the strike, and as a way to pressure me into crossing the picket line. Am I wrong in thinking that my supervisor had no right to divulge this information?
Two days ago, the loan agent called and said that the loan was ready to go, and that the only thing he had to do was to verify my employment. He said that he had been unable to reach anyone at the number that I had given him (human resources). I gave him the number of my supervisor, knowing that she could verify that I did, indeed, work there. When the lender called my supervisor to verify my employment, my supervisor informed him that we were on strike. Now we don't get the loan.
Even though we are on strike, I am still an employee of the company. I think that this was done in retaliation of the strike, and as a way to pressure me into crossing the picket line. Am I wrong in thinking that my supervisor had no right to divulge this information?