Kirk_Ferentz
Junior Member
(California)
My question is about the enforceability of a lease provision that purports to allow a landlord to charge back all "discount" amounts that were given on a month-to-month basis (the landlord supposedly knocks $100 off of the "market" price each month) upon breaking of the lease. So, if a tenant leaves before the full term is up, he or she will owe the $100 "discount" amount for each of the previous months and will have to pay all subsequent months that it is unoccupied at the "market" rate. I suppose that the landlord would then rent it out at the "discount" rate and tell the lease-breaker that he or she needs to couugh up the extra $100 for each of the months after he or she leaves.
I should say that in this case, the "clause" is actually a lease adendum that is routinely (though not always) added to leases at the property.
The "market" rate is set by the property management company. The agents have no idea how it is calculated. So, I'm not sure if the "discount" is real in any way.
I have done some research on this issue and found Freeman v. United Dominion, 2008 WL 1838373, which casts a lot of doubt as to the enforceability of a promotional first month free charge back (upon violation of the lease) clause in a lease.
This case seemed to confirm what I thought, which is that this is a disguised penalty clause. The clause only kicks in upon violation of the lease, and there is no real tie to actual damages of the landlord. I tend to think that it is a penalty clause even if the rent was truly "discounted" (charging back what you already gave to a tenant in event of breaking a lease still seems to be a "penalty"), but certainly seems to be a penalty if the "discount" is illusory in any way.
For those of you experienced in landlord-tenant matters, I'm interested in both 1. the law on this, and 2. the real life procedures of how this plays out if a lease is broken and the landlord tries to collect.
Thanks in advance!
My question is about the enforceability of a lease provision that purports to allow a landlord to charge back all "discount" amounts that were given on a month-to-month basis (the landlord supposedly knocks $100 off of the "market" price each month) upon breaking of the lease. So, if a tenant leaves before the full term is up, he or she will owe the $100 "discount" amount for each of the previous months and will have to pay all subsequent months that it is unoccupied at the "market" rate. I suppose that the landlord would then rent it out at the "discount" rate and tell the lease-breaker that he or she needs to couugh up the extra $100 for each of the months after he or she leaves.
I should say that in this case, the "clause" is actually a lease adendum that is routinely (though not always) added to leases at the property.
The "market" rate is set by the property management company. The agents have no idea how it is calculated. So, I'm not sure if the "discount" is real in any way.
I have done some research on this issue and found Freeman v. United Dominion, 2008 WL 1838373, which casts a lot of doubt as to the enforceability of a promotional first month free charge back (upon violation of the lease) clause in a lease.
This case seemed to confirm what I thought, which is that this is a disguised penalty clause. The clause only kicks in upon violation of the lease, and there is no real tie to actual damages of the landlord. I tend to think that it is a penalty clause even if the rent was truly "discounted" (charging back what you already gave to a tenant in event of breaking a lease still seems to be a "penalty"), but certainly seems to be a penalty if the "discount" is illusory in any way.
For those of you experienced in landlord-tenant matters, I'm interested in both 1. the law on this, and 2. the real life procedures of how this plays out if a lease is broken and the landlord tries to collect.
Thanks in advance!