Please reread the wording of my first post and tell me what is incorrect about it.
As a homeowner who has rented out a room in his house without a lease, the homeowner/now landlord CAN revoke privileges that were not spelled out in a written lease. For one example, if the tenant or his guests violate a law while in the house (e.g., use drugs), the homeowner/landlord can advise his tenant that the guests are no longer allowed in his house. What the guests do can affect the homeowner, not only the tenant.
As
TigerD (Yay Detroit Tigers! ) has said, broad definitive statements rarely have a place in law. "Can" a landlord revoke unwritten privileges? Yes. Is it legal to do so? Possibly. It depends on the facts, of which we have little.