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Originally Posted by illpleathe5th Can an answering machine message be used against a defendant in court if it was not threatening? | Simple answer... yes, it can be used. And what does 'threatening' have to do with it??
Your state (MO) is a one party state, which means you would only need the consent of one party to the communication. In this case, the ONLY party (as it was a message) gave consent simply by leaving the message. The receiving party (presumably you) also gave 'consent' when you present it to court.
__________________ There are at least 17 lawsuits (!!) pending in various courts, including the US Supreme Court, asking if Obama is a natural born citizen (as req'd by Art II, Sec 1 of the US Constitution).
Why has he spent over $1.35M in legal fees to block disclosure... rather than spend $12 for a VALID birth cert to settle the matter? The 'certificate' he has presented doesn't qualify to get a drivers license, wouldn't allow a child to qualify for Little League, or for a real citizen to get a US passport! |