I put a "without prejudice" statment in my affidavit. He used it in court...

[me2]

I'm representing myself in a divorce.

I put one of his statements in my affidavit that was under a "without prejudice" banner. He read it and noticed it. It was very late when I prepared it and I didn't realize I did it.

However, he used the same statement in court. I think he told the judge it was without prejudice, but he still used it to get some damages on me.

He said his is going to do a motion to strike and charge me costs. If he hauls me in front of a judge, can I lose anything by pointing out that he used it too ?

Can I strike it on my own before him ?

The lawyer is really mad at me. He was expecting a big win for his client and I denied him. I got $500 in court charges but he lost big time.

Thanks.